Nursing Elites

1. A nurse receives report about assigned clients at the start of the shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?

• A. A client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hours ago and reports pain
• B. A client who has preeclampsia with a BP of 138/90 mm Hg
• C. A client who experienced a vaginal birth 24 hours ago and reports no bleeding
• D. A client who is scheduled for discharge following a laparoscopic tubal ligation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hours ago and reports pain first. Pain assessment and management are crucial post-cesarean birth to ensure the client's comfort and well-being. Immediate attention is needed to address the client's pain and provide appropriate interventions. The other clients may require attention but do not have an immediate postoperative concern like pain following a cesarean birth.

2. A newborn is born to a mother with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes. The newborn is macrosomic and presents with respiratory distress syndrome. The most likely cause of the respiratory distress is which of the following?

• A. Hyperinsulinemia
• B. Increased deposits of fat in the chest and shoulder area
• C. Brachial plexus injury
• D. Increased blood viscosity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hyperinsulinemia. In infants born to mothers with poorly controlled diabetes, the excess glucose crosses the placenta, leading to fetal hyperglycemia. This results in fetal hyperinsulinemia, which in turn can cause macrosomia (large birth weight), increasing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome due to the immature lungs' inability to handle the increased workload. Hyperinsulinemia, not increased deposits of fat, brachial plexus injury, or increased blood viscosity, is the most likely cause of respiratory distress in this scenario.

3. A client at 11 weeks of gestation reports slight occasional vaginal bleeding over the past 2 weeks. Following an examination, the provider informs the client that the fetus has died, indicating a:

• A. Incomplete miscarriage
• B. Missed miscarriage
• C. Inevitable miscarriage
• D. Complete miscarriage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A missed miscarriage, also known as a silent or delayed miscarriage, occurs when the embryo or fetus has died, but no bleeding or contractions have occurred to expel it from the uterus. In this scenario, the client's experiencing slight occasional vaginal bleeding over the past two weeks indicates a missed miscarriage as the fetus has died, but the body has not recognized the loss or expelled the products of conception.

4. A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for a group of clients with an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following tasks should the nurse plan to delegate to the AP?

• A. Provide a sitz bath to a client who has a fourth-degree laceration and is 2 days postpartum.
• B. Observe an area of redness on the breast of a client who is 1 day postpartum.
• C. Monitor vital signs during admission of a client who has gestational hypertension.
• D. Change the perineal pad of a client who just transferred from labor and delivery.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Delegating the task of providing a sitz bath to a client with a fourth-degree laceration and who is 2 days postpartum to the assistive personnel (AP) is appropriate. This task involves assisting the client with personal hygiene and comfort measures that can be safely performed by the AP under the supervision and direction of the nurse. Tasks like observing redness on the breast, monitoring vital signs during admission for gestational hypertension, and changing perineal pads may require a higher level of assessment and nursing judgment, making them more appropriate for the nurse to perform.

5. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

• A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
• B. This could initiate preterm labor.
• C. This could result in profound bleeding.
• D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.

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