ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2023
1. A nurse receives report about assigned clients at the start of the shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?
- A. A client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hours ago and reports pain
- B. A client who has preeclampsia with a BP of 138/90 mm Hg
- C. A client who experienced a vaginal birth 24 hours ago and reports no bleeding
- D. A client who is scheduled for discharge following a laparoscopic tubal ligation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hours ago and reports pain first. Pain assessment and management are crucial post-cesarean birth to ensure the client's comfort and well-being. Immediate attention is needed to address the client's pain and provide appropriate interventions. The other clients may require attention but do not have an immediate postoperative concern like pain following a cesarean birth.
2. A woman at 38 weeks of gestation and in early labor with ruptured membranes has an oral temperature of 38.9�C (102�F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
- A. Recheck the client's temperature in 4 hours
- B. Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly
- C. Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid
- D. Prepare the client for emergency cesarean section
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a pregnant woman with a temperature of 38.9�C (102�F) in early labor with ruptured membranes, assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid is crucial. Foul-smelling or malodorous amniotic fluid could indicate infection, such as chorioamnionitis, which poses risks to both the woman and the fetus. This assessment can help in determining if an infection is present and prompt appropriate interventions. Rechecking the temperature, administering glucocorticoids, or preparing for an emergency cesarean section are not the most immediate or appropriate actions in this scenario.
3. During an assessment, a nurse is evaluating a pregnant client for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client requires further evaluation for this disorder?
- A. Increased urine output
- B. Vaginal discharge
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Joint pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Preeclampsia is characterized by elevated blood pressure, proteinuria, and sometimes edema. Hypertension is a key sign of preeclampsia, and if present, further evaluation and monitoring are necessary to prevent complications for both the mother and the fetus.
4. A client at 22 weeks of gestation with uncontrolled gestational diabetes mellitus may require medication. Which of the following medications would the provider likely prescribe?
- A. Acarbose
- B. Repaglinide
- C. Glyburide
- D. Glipizide
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Glyburide is commonly prescribed for gestational diabetes mellitus when diet and exercise are insufficient to control blood sugar levels. It is considered safe and effective during pregnancy, making it a suitable choice for managing diabetes in pregnant individuals. Acarbose, Repaglinide, and Glipizide are not typically recommended for use in pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the arterial blood gas results for a client in the ICU who has kidney failure and determines the client has respiratory acidosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Widened QRS complexes
- B. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
- C. Bounding peripheral pulses
- D. Warm, flushed skin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is characterized by an increase in carbon dioxide levels in the blood, leading to acidosis. This condition can affect the heart's electrical conduction system, resulting in widened QRS complexes on an electrocardiogram (ECG). Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, bounding peripheral pulses, and warm, flushed skin are not typically associated with respiratory acidosis.
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