ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2023
1. A nurse receives report about assigned clients at the start of the shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?
- A. A client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hours ago and reports pain
- B. A client who has preeclampsia with a BP of 138/90 mm Hg
- C. A client who experienced a vaginal birth 24 hours ago and reports no bleeding
- D. A client who is scheduled for discharge following a laparoscopic tubal ligation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hours ago and reports pain first. Pain assessment and management are crucial post-cesarean birth to ensure the client's comfort and well-being. Immediate attention is needed to address the client's pain and provide appropriate interventions. The other clients may require attention but do not have an immediate postoperative concern like pain following a cesarean birth.
2. A newborn is born to a mother with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes. The newborn is macrosomic and presents with respiratory distress syndrome. The most likely cause of the respiratory distress is which of the following?
- A. Hyperinsulinemia
- B. Increased deposits of fat in the chest and shoulder area
- C. Brachial plexus injury
- D. Increased blood viscosity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hyperinsulinemia. In infants born to mothers with poorly controlled diabetes, the excess glucose crosses the placenta, leading to fetal hyperglycemia. This results in fetal hyperinsulinemia, which in turn can cause macrosomia (large birth weight), increasing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome due to the immature lungs' inability to handle the increased workload. Hyperinsulinemia, not increased deposits of fat, brachial plexus injury, or increased blood viscosity, is the most likely cause of respiratory distress in this scenario.
3. A client is being assessed for postpartum infection. Which of the following findings should indicate to the healthcare provider that the client requires further evaluation for endometritis?
- A. Localized area of breast tenderness
- B. Pelvic pain
- C. Vaginal discharge with foul odor
- D. Hematuria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pelvic pain is a common symptom of endometritis, which is an infection of the uterine lining. It is an important finding that warrants further evaluation. Localized area of breast tenderness may indicate mastitis, vaginal discharge with a foul odor could suggest a vaginal infection, and hematuria points towards a urinary tract issue, but they are not specific to endometritis.
4. During the admission assessment of a client at 38 weeks of gestation with severe preeclampsia, what would the nurse expect as a finding?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Absence of clonus
- C. Polyuria
- D. Report of headache
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. Headache is a common symptom in clients with severe preeclampsia due to cerebral edema or vasospasm. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with severe preeclampsia. Clonus (Choice B) is a sign of hyperactive reflexes, often seen in clients with severe preeclampsia. Polyuria (Choice C) is not a typical finding in clients with severe preeclampsia.
5. A nurse in the antepartum unit is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following comp
- A. Placenta previa
- B. Prolapsed cord
- C. Incompetent cervix
- D. Abruptio placentae
Correct answer: D
Rationale:
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