Nursing Elites

1. A nurse receives report about assigned clients at the start of the shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?

• A. A client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hours ago and reports pain
• B. A client who has preeclampsia with a BP of 138/90 mm Hg
• C. A client who experienced a vaginal birth 24 hours ago and reports no bleeding
• D. A client who is scheduled for discharge following a laparoscopic tubal ligation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hours ago and reports pain first. Pain assessment and management are crucial post-cesarean birth to ensure the client's comfort and well-being. Immediate attention is needed to address the client's pain and provide appropriate interventions. The other clients may require attention but do not have an immediate postoperative concern like pain following a cesarean birth.

2. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

• A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
• B. This could initiate preterm labor.
• C. This could result in profound bleeding.
• D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.

3. A nurse in an antepartum unit is triaging clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and reports a cough and fever
• B. A client who has missed a period and reports vaginal spotting
• C. A client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and reports nausea and vomiting
• D. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and reports of painless vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

4. A client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth has a history of thromboembolic disease. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Apply warm, moist heat to the client's lower extremities.
• B. Massage the client's posterior lower legs.
• C. Place pillows under the client's knees when resting in bed.
• D. Have the client ambulate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth with a history of thromboembolic disease is to have the client ambulate. Early ambulation is crucial in preventing complications such as deep vein thrombosis in postpartum clients. Applying warm, moist heat, massaging the legs, or placing pillows under the knees do not directly address the risk of thromboembolic disease in this scenario.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease has arterial blood gas values being reviewed by a nurse. Which of the following sets of values should the nurse expect?

• A. pH 7.25, HCO3- 19 mEq/L, PaCO2 30 mm Hg
• B. pH 7.30, HCO3- 26 mEq/L, PaCO2 50 mm Hg
• C. pH 7.50, HCO3- 20 mEq/L, PaCO2 32 mm Hg
• D. pH 7.55, HCO3- 30 mEq/L, PaCO2 31 mm Hg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, metabolic acidosis is common due to impaired kidney function leading to reduced bicarbonate excretion. The correct values indicating metabolic acidosis in this scenario are a low pH (acidosis), low bicarbonate (HCO3-) level, and low PaCO2 (compensation through respiratory alkalosis). Therefore, the expected values for a client with chronic kidney disease would be pH 7.25, HCO3- 19 mEq/L, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, as depicted in choice A.

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