Nursing Elites

1. A nurse receives report about assigned clients at the start of the shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?

• A. A client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hours ago and reports pain
• B. A client who has preeclampsia with a BP of 138/90 mm Hg
• C. A client who experienced a vaginal birth 24 hours ago and reports no bleeding
• D. A client who is scheduled for discharge following a laparoscopic tubal ligation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hours ago and reports pain first. Pain assessment and management are crucial post-cesarean birth to ensure the client's comfort and well-being. Immediate attention is needed to address the client's pain and provide appropriate interventions. The other clients may require attention but do not have an immediate postoperative concern like pain following a cesarean birth.

2. A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate IV at 2 g/hr. Which of the following findings indicates that it is safe to continue the infusion?

• A. Diminished deep-tendon reflexes
• B. Respiratory rate of 16/min
• C. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours
• D. Heart rate of 56/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 16/min within the normal range is an essential parameter to monitor when administering magnesium sulfate, as respiratory depression is a potential adverse effect. Diminished deep-tendon reflexes may indicate magnesium toxicity, warranting immediate intervention. A urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours is below the expected amount, suggesting decreased kidney perfusion, which can be exacerbated by magnesium sulfate. A heart rate of 56/min is bradycardic and may indicate magnesium toxicity, requiring assessment and possible discontinuation of the infusion.

3. A client who experienced a cesarean birth due to dysfunctional labor expresses disappointment for not having a natural childbirth. Which response should the nurse make?

• A. Validate the client's feelings by saying, 'It sounds like you are feeling sad that things didn't go as planned.'
• B. Assure the client by stating, 'At least you know you have a healthy baby.'
• C. Encourage the client by suggesting, 'Maybe next time you can have a vaginal delivery.'
• D. Provide information by saying, 'You can resume sexual relations sooner than if you had delivered vaginally.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge and validate the client's feelings of disappointment. This empathetic approach demonstrates understanding and support for the client's emotional state, fostering a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Options B, C, and D do not address the client's emotional needs or provide appropriate support in this situation.

4. A newborn is born to a mother with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes. The newborn is macrosomic and presents with respiratory distress syndrome. The most likely cause of the respiratory distress is which of the following?

• A. Hyperinsulinemia
• B. Increased deposits of fat in the chest and shoulder area
• C. Brachial plexus injury
• D. Increased blood viscosity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hyperinsulinemia. In infants born to mothers with poorly controlled diabetes, the excess glucose crosses the placenta, leading to fetal hyperglycemia. This results in fetal hyperinsulinemia, which in turn can cause macrosomia (large birth weight), increasing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome due to the immature lungs' inability to handle the increased workload. Hyperinsulinemia, not increased deposits of fat, brachial plexus injury, or increased blood viscosity, is the most likely cause of respiratory distress in this scenario.

5. A woman at 38 weeks of gestation and in early labor with ruptured membranes has an oral temperature of 38.9�C (102�F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

• A. Recheck the client's temperature in 4 hours
• B. Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly
• C. Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid
• D. Prepare the client for emergency cesarean section

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a pregnant woman with a temperature of 38.9�C (102�F) in early labor with ruptured membranes, assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid is crucial. Foul-smelling or malodorous amniotic fluid could indicate infection, such as chorioamnionitis, which poses risks to both the woman and the fetus. This assessment can help in determining if an infection is present and prompt appropriate interventions. Rechecking the temperature, administering glucocorticoids, or preparing for an emergency cesarean section are not the most immediate or appropriate actions in this scenario.

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