Nursing Elites

1. A nurse receives report about assigned clients at the start of the shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?

• A. A client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hours ago and reports pain
• B. A client who has preeclampsia with a BP of 138/90 mm Hg
• C. A client who experienced a vaginal birth 24 hours ago and reports no bleeding
• D. A client who is scheduled for discharge following a laparoscopic tubal ligation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hours ago and reports pain first. Pain assessment and management are crucial post-cesarean birth to ensure the client's comfort and well-being. Immediate attention is needed to address the client's pain and provide appropriate interventions. The other clients may require attention but do not have an immediate postoperative concern like pain following a cesarean birth.

2. A client with acute respiratory failure (ARF) may present with which of the following manifestations? (Select one that doesn't apply.)

• A. Severe dyspnea
• B. Decreased level of consciousness
• C. Headache
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acute respiratory failure (ARF), the body is not getting enough oxygen, leading to respiratory distress. Symptoms of ARF typically include severe dyspnea (difficulty breathing), decreased level of consciousness due to hypoxia, and headache from inadequate oxygenation to the brain. Nausea is not a typical manifestation of ARF and would not be expected in this condition.

3. During the admission assessment of a client at 38 weeks of gestation with severe preeclampsia, what would the nurse expect as a finding?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Absence of clonus
• C. Polyuria
• D. Report of headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Severe preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. Headache is a common symptom in clients with severe preeclampsia due to cerebral edema or vasospasm. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with severe preeclampsia. Clonus (Choice B) is a sign of hyperactive reflexes, often seen in clients with severe preeclampsia. Polyuria (Choice C) is not a typical finding in clients with severe preeclampsia.

4. When caring for a newborn with macrosomia born to a mother with diabetes mellitus, which newborn complication should the nurse prioritize care for?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hypomagnesemia
• C. Hyperbilirubinemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In newborns of diabetic mothers with macrosomia, hypoglycemia is the priority focus of care due to the risk of developing low blood sugar levels after birth. Infants born to diabetic mothers are at risk of hypoglycemia because they have been exposed to high glucose levels in utero and produce high levels of insulin. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious complications if not promptly identified and managed, making it crucial for nurses to closely monitor blood glucose levels and provide necessary interventions to prevent adverse outcomes.

5. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

• A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
• B. This could initiate preterm labor.
• C. This could result in profound bleeding.
• D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.

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