Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to monitor for adverse effects?

• A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes.
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 30 minutes.
• C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation every hour.
• D. Monitor the client's heart rate every 5 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to monitor for adverse effects of Morphine IV is to check the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes. Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently allows for early detection and intervention if needed. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate alone may not provide early signs of respiratory depression, which is a critical adverse effect of Morphine IV.

2. How do ACE inhibitors work?

• A. Block the vasoconstrictor and aldosterone effects of angiotensin II at the receptor site
• B. Block stimulation of beta 1 and beta 2 at the receptor sites
• C. Block the conversion of angiotensin I to the vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by blocking its production, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload of the heart. Choice A is incorrect because it describes the mechanism of action of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), not ACE inhibitors. Choice B is incorrect as it describes beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do have a specific mechanism of action.

3. When teaching a client who has a new prescription for Dextromethorphan to suppress a cough, which adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Anxiety
• C. Sedation
• D. Palpitations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sedation. Dextromethorphan can cause sedation, so the client should be advised to avoid activities that require alertness. Diarrhea, anxiety, and palpitations are not commonly associated adverse effects of Dextromethorphan.

4. A client's plasma Lithium level is 2.1 mEq/L. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Perform immediate gastric lavage.
• B. Prepare the client for hemodialysis.
• C. Administer an additional oral dose of lithium.
• D. Request a stat repeat of the laboratory test.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a plasma lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L, immediate gastric lavage is appropriate for severe toxicity. Gastric lavage can help lower the client's lithium level by removing the unabsorbed lithium from the stomach.

5. What is levothyroxine's pharmacologic classification?

• A. Thyroid Preparations
• B. Metabolic Inhibitors
• C. Analgesic
• D. Loop Diuretic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Levothyroxine is classified as a thyroid preparation because it is a synthetic form of the thyroid hormone thyroxine. It is primarily used to treat hypothyroidism by supplementing or replacing the natural thyroid hormones in the body, helping to regulate metabolism and energy levels. Choice B, Metabolic Inhibitors, is incorrect because levothyroxine does not inhibit metabolism but rather helps regulate it. Choice C, Analgesic, is incorrect as levothyroxine is not used for pain relief but for thyroid hormone replacement therapy. Choice D, Loop Diuretic, is also incorrect as loop diuretics are medications that act on the kidneys to increase urine production and are not related to thyroid hormone replacement therapy.

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