Nursing Elites

1. To which pharmacologic classification does the drug propranolol belong?

• A. Beta Blockers
• B. Cholinergics
• C. Immune globulins
• D. Barbiturates

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propranolol belongs to the pharmacologic classification of Beta Blockers. Beta blockers work by blocking the action of adrenaline and other stress hormones on beta-adrenergic receptors. They are commonly used to manage conditions like high blood pressure, angina, and arrhythmias. Choice B, Cholinergics, is incorrect because cholinergics work by stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system, unlike beta blockers that block adrenergic receptors. Choice C, Immune globulins, is incorrect as it refers to antibodies used to boost the immune system, not the mechanism of action of propranolol. Choice D, Barbiturates, is incorrect as barbiturates are a different class of drugs that act as central nervous system depressants, primarily used as sedatives and anesthetics.

2. A healthcare provider is planning to administer IV Alteplase to a client who is demonstrating manifestations of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider plan to take?

• A. Administer IM Enoxaparin along with the Alteplase dose.
• B. Hold direct pressure on puncture sites for up to 30 minutes.
• C. Administer Aminocaproic acid IV prior to alteplase infusion.
• D. Prepare to administer Alteplase within 8 hours of manifestation onset.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering IV Alteplase for a massive Pulmonary Embolism, the healthcare provider should plan to hold direct pressure on puncture sites for 10 to 30 minutes or until oozing of blood stops. This is crucial to prevent bleeding complications at the puncture sites. Choice A is incorrect because Enoxaparin is not usually administered along with Alteplase for a Pulmonary Embolism. Choice C is incorrect because Aminocaproic acid is not typically given prior to alteplase infusion in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because Alteplase should be administered within 2 hours of onset of manifestations for Pulmonary Embolism, not within 8 hours.

3. When providing discharge instructions to a client with a new prescription for Lisinopril, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid salt substitutes.
• B. Take this medication at bedtime.
• C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Take this medication with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid salt substitutes. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia, so it is essential to avoid salt substitutes containing potassium, which can further increase potassium levels in the body. This instruction aims to prevent potential adverse effects and ensure the client's safety while taking Lisinopril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril is typically taken once a day in the morning, it can lead to hyperkalemia (so increasing potassium-rich foods is not advised), and it can be taken with or without food.

4. A client is starting a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Avoid grapefruit juice.
• C. Monitor blood pressure regularly.
• D. Monitor heart rate daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients prescribed verapamil should be advised to avoid grapefruit juice as it can potentiate the drug's effects, leading to adverse reactions. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of verapamil, resulting in higher blood levels of the medication and an increased risk of side effects. Instructions such as taking the medication with a full glass of water (Choice A) are not specific to verapamil and are generally recommended. While monitoring blood pressure regularly (Choice C) is important for clients on antihypertensive medications, it is not a direct concern related to verapamil. Monitoring heart rate daily (Choice D) is not a primary consideration when starting verapamil, as it is more commonly used for its effects on blood pressure and arrhythmias rather than heart rate.

5. A client with chronic myeloid leukemia is receiving hydroxyurea. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving hydroxyurea. Neutropenia is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. It is essential to assess the client's white blood cell count regularly to detect neutropenia early and prevent complications such as infections.

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