Nursing Elites

1. A client is starting therapy with docetaxel. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Flushing
• B. Dyspnea
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse effect of docetaxel. Dyspnea may be a sign of a potentially life-threatening condition that the healthcare provider needs to address promptly. Flushing (Choice A) is not typically associated with docetaxel therapy. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is also not a common side effect of docetaxel. Tinnitus (Choice D) is not a usual finding with docetaxel and is not a priority over potential pulmonary toxicity indicated by dyspnea.

2. When teaching parents about a child newly prescribed Desipramine, the nurse should instruct them that which of the following adverse effects is the priority to report to the provider?

• A. Constipation
• B. Suicidal thoughts
• C. Photophobia
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority adverse effect to report when a child is prescribed Desipramine is suicidal thoughts. Desipramine can increase the risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors. It is crucial for parents to monitor the child for any signs of worsening depression or thoughts of self-harm and report them promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent any harm to the child. Options A, C, and D are potential side effects of Desipramine but are not as urgent or life-threatening as suicidal thoughts, which require immediate intervention to ensure the safety of the child.

3. A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication?

• A. One
• B. Two
• C. Three
• D. Four

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Phenobarbital, with a long half-life of 4 days, remains at therapeutic levels in the body for an extended period. Due to this prolonged duration of action, the nurse should administer phenobarbital once a day to maintain a consistent therapeutic effect without the need for multiple daily doses. Administering the medication more than once a day would not be necessary and could increase the risk of side effects or toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer phenobarbital once a day.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory findings and notes that a client's plasma Lithium level is 2.1 mEq/L. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the healthcare professional?

• A. Perform immediate gastric lavage.
• B. Prepare the client for hemodialysis.
• C. Administer an additional oral dose of lithium.
• D. Request a stat repeat of the laboratory test.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing immediate gastric lavage is the appropriate action for a client with severe lithium toxicity, indicated by a plasma lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L. Gastric lavage can help reduce the client's lithium level by removing the unabsorbed drug from the stomach.

5. What is the pharmacological class of Lithium?

• A. Antidiabetics, biguanides
• B. Mood stabilizers
• C. Antiarrhythmics, anticonvulsants
• D. Vascular headache suppressants

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lithium is classified as a mood stabilizer due to its primary use in managing bipolar disorder, where it helps stabilize mood swings and prevent episodes of mania and depression. While it can have other effects on the body, its main therapeutic role lies in its mood-stabilizing properties. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as lithium is not classified as antidiabetics, biguanides, antiarrhythmics, anticonvulsants, or vascular headache suppressants. Its main pharmacological class is mood stabilizers.

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