ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI
1. A client has a prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication in the morning.
- B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. Expect your urine to turn orange.
- D. Avoid prolonged sunlight exposure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased excretion of potassium in the urine. To counteract this effect and maintain electrolyte balance, the client should be advised to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. This instruction helps prevent potential complications associated with low potassium levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Furosemide in the morning does not affect its effectiveness; urine turning orange is not an expected side effect of Furosemide; and avoiding prolonged sunlight exposure is not directly related to Furosemide use.
2. A client is taking Propylthiouracil. For which of the following adverse effects of this medication should the nurse monitor?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Insomnia
- C. Heat intolerance
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Propylthiouracil is a medication used to treat hyperthyroidism. One of the adverse effects of Propylthiouracil is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Since the medication works by decreasing thyroid hormone production, it can lead to hypothyroidism as a side effect, causing bradycardia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of bradycardia while taking Propylthiouracil. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because insomnia, heat intolerance, and weight loss are not typically associated adverse effects of Propylthiouracil.
3. A client with HIV-1 infection is prescribed zidovudine as part of antiretroviral therapy. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Cardiac dysrhythmia
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Renal failure
- D. Aplastic anemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Zidovudine is associated with the development of aplastic anemia, a serious adverse effect characterized by bone marrow suppression. Regular monitoring is essential to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Cardiac dysrhythmia, metabolic alkalosis, and renal failure are not commonly associated with zidovudine use, making them incorrect choices for adverse effects of this medication.
4. ACE Inhibitors are used in the treatment of all EXCEPT:
- A. Hypertension
- B. Heart Failure
- C. Hypotension
- D. Diabetic nephropathy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors are commonly used in the treatment of hypertension, heart failure, and diabetic nephropathy due to their ability to reduce blood pressure, improve heart function, and protect the kidneys. However, they are not indicated for hypotension as they can further lower blood pressure, worsening the condition. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choice A, hypertension, is correct as ACE inhibitors are a first-line treatment for this condition. Choice B, heart failure, is also correct as ACE inhibitors help improve heart function in patients with heart failure. Choice D, diabetic nephropathy, is correct as ACE inhibitors can slow the progression of kidney damage in diabetic patients.
5. Which of the following conditions are not treated with Barbiturates?
- A. Seizures
- B. Hypotension
- C. Insomnia
- D. Anxiety
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypotension is not treated with barbiturates. Barbiturates are primarily used for treating seizures, insomnia, and anxiety, but they are not indicated for the treatment of hypotension.
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