a nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a thoracotomy which of the following findings should the nurse report to the pro
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chest tube drainage of more than 100 mL/hr may indicate active bleeding, which is a serious complication post-thoracotomy surgery. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within normal limits for a client 2 hours post-thoracotomy and do not require immediate reporting. Oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable, and a heart rate of 88/min is within the normal range for an adult.

2. What is the best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic liver disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic liver disease is a low protein diet. In liver disease, the liver may have difficulty processing protein, leading to the accumulation of toxins like ammonia in the body. A low protein diet helps reduce the burden on the liver and minimizes the production of these harmful substances. High protein diets can exacerbate the condition by increasing the workload on the liver. A low sodium diet (Choice C) is also important for liver disease patients as excess sodium can contribute to fluid retention and swelling, but reducing protein intake is the primary focus in these cases.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs is to check the client's identification band. This step is crucial to ensure that the correct blood is administered to the right client, preventing any errors or adverse reactions. Verifying the provider's prescription, priming the IV tubing, and obtaining the client's vital signs are important steps in the process but should follow the initial identification check to prioritize patient safety.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypotension is a common adverse effect of morphine due to its vasodilatory properties. It can lead to a drop in blood pressure, which should be closely monitored during administration. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Urinary retention (Choice B) is a side effect of morphine due to its impact on the bladder muscles, but it is not classified as an adverse effect. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of morphine; instead, it tends to cause tachycardia.

5. What is the best intervention for a patient with respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient with respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation levels and alleviates respiratory distress directly. Providing oxygen addresses the primary issue of inadequate oxygen supply, which is crucial in managing respiratory distress. Repositioning the patient, while important for airway clearance, may not address the immediate need for oxygen. Providing bronchodilators and humidified air can be beneficial in certain respiratory conditions, but when a patient is in respiratory distress, ensuring adequate oxygenation through oxygen administration takes precedence.

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