ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Chest tube drainage of 60 mL/hr
- B. Oxygen saturation of 95%
- C. Chest tube drainage of 120 mL/hr
- D. Heart rate of 88/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chest tube drainage of more than 100 mL/hr may indicate active bleeding, which is a serious complication post-thoracotomy surgery. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within normal limits for a client 2 hours post-thoracotomy and do not require immediate reporting. Oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable, and a heart rate of 88/min is within the normal range for an adult.
2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client. Which of the following actions should the provider take?
- A. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle
- B. Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle
- C. Inject the medication slowly after aspiration
- D. Massage the site after injection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct answer: When administering an intramuscular injection, the needle should be inserted at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper delivery of the medication into the muscle tissue. Option B is incorrect because a 45-degree angle is typically used for subcutaneous injections, not intramuscular. Option C is incorrect as aspiration is not recommended for intramuscular injections. Option D is incorrect as massaging the site after an intramuscular injection can cause tissue damage or interfere with the absorption of the medication.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus and is receiving desmopressin. Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?
- A. The client's urine output decreases.
- B. The client's blood pressure increases.
- C. The client's heart rate increases.
- D. The client's urine specific gravity decreases.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The client's urine output decreases.' Desmopressin is used to treat diabetes insipidus by reducing excessive urine output. Therefore, a decrease in urine output indicates that the medication is effectively controlling the symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because desmopressin primarily affects urine output, not blood pressure, heart rate, or urine specific gravity.
4. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a patient receiving morphine?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Respiratory depression
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, respiratory depression. When a patient is receiving morphine, respiratory depression is the most concerning side effect because it can lead to serious complications, including respiratory arrest and even death. Monitoring the patient's respiratory status is crucial to ensure early detection of any signs of respiratory depression. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although hypotension, bradycardia, and hypertension can occur as side effects of morphine, they are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression in this context.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Use a donut-shaped cushion for sitting
- B. Turn the client every 4 hours
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
- D. Massage reddened areas to increase circulation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed reduces pressure on bony prominences, which helps prevent pressure ulcers.
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