Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for and report which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Tinnitus.
• B. Photosensitivity.
• C. Urinary frequency.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin, an antibiotic commonly used to treat UTIs, can cause photosensitivity as an adverse effect. This reaction makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, potentially leading to severe sunburns or skin damage. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this adverse effect to take precautions and report any signs of photosensitivity promptly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, urinary frequency, and insomnia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use. While urinary frequency might be a symptom of UTI, it is not an adverse effect of the medication itself.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone IM to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication using a tuberculin syringe
• B. Administer the medication at a 45-degree angle
• C. Use the dorsogluteal muscle for injection
• D. Aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: When administering intramuscular injections like ceftriaxone, it is essential to aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication to ensure that the needle is not in a blood vessel. Choices A and B are incorrect because ceftriaxone is typically administered using a syringe appropriate for IM injections (not a tuberculin syringe) and injected at a 90-degree angle rather than 45 degrees. Choice C is incorrect because the dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended for IM injections due to potential injury to the sciatic nerve and other structures.

3. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with hyperkalemia?

• A. Administer calcium gluconate
• B. Administer insulin
• C. Administer sodium bicarbonate
• D. Administer a diuretic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer calcium gluconate. In hyperkalemia, the priority is to protect the heart from potential complications like arrhythmias. Calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment as it stabilizes the cardiac cell membrane. Insulin (Choice B) and sodium bicarbonate (Choice C) can be used in conjunction with other treatments to shift potassium into cells, but calcium gluconate is the priority. Administering a diuretic (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for hyperkalemia and can even worsen the condition by reducing potassium excretion.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Eschar
• B. Slough
• C. Granulation tissue
• D. Undermining

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Undermining.' Undermining occurs when the tissue under the wound edges erodes, indicating poor healing progress. This finding should be reported to the provider as it suggests delayed wound healing and may require intervention. Choice A, 'Eschar,' is a thick, hard, black/brown necrotic tissue that forms over a wound. While it indicates a non-healing wound, it is not as concerning as undermining. Choice B, 'Slough,' is a soft, moist, yellow/white tissue that is also a sign of necrosis. While the presence of slough indicates the need for wound cleaning and debridement, it is not as critical to report as undermining. Choice C, 'Granulation tissue,' is new tissue that forms during wound healing and is a positive sign. The presence of granulation tissue indicates that the wound is progressing through the healing stages and is not a finding that requires immediate reporting to the provider.

5. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin?

• A. INR 1.5
• B. aPTT 60 seconds
• C. Platelets 150,000/mm³
• D. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for a clot to form, and a therapeutic range for heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 60-80 seconds. An INR of 1.5 is not related to heparin therapy, as it is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count and potassium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

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