ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. When administering digoxin 0.125 mg PO to an adult client, for which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium level 4.2 mEq/L.
- B. Apical pulse 58/min
- C. Digoxin level 1 ng/mL
- D. Constipation for 2 days
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Monitoring the digoxin level is crucial as it helps determine the drug's effectiveness and potential toxicity. A digoxin level of 1 ng/mL is within the therapeutic range. However, levels above this range can lead to toxicity, causing adverse effects like nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, and dysrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should report a digoxin level of 1 ng/mL to the provider for further evaluation and potential dose adjustment.
2. The healthcare professional must verify the client’s identity before the administration of medication. Which of the following is the safest way to identify the client?
- A. Ask the client for their name
- B. Check the client’s identification band
- C. State the client’s name aloud and ask the client to repeat it
- D. Check the room number
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the client's identity before administering medication is crucial to ensure patient safety. Checking the client’s identification band is the safest and most reliable method to confirm the client's identity. Identification bands are specifically designed to prevent errors in patient identification and help healthcare professionals administer care to the correct individual. Asking the client for their name (Choice A) may lead to errors if the client is unable to communicate or if there is a language barrier. Stating the client’s name aloud and asking them to repeat it (Choice C) relies on the client's ability to respond accurately. Checking the room number (Choice D) does not directly confirm the client's identity and may lead to errors if multiple patients are in the same room.
3. What is the transparent membrane that focuses the light entering the eyes onto the retina?
- A. Lens
- B. Sclera
- C. Cornea
- D. Pupils
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the lens. The lens is a transparent structure in the eye that helps to focus light onto the retina, which is essential for clear vision. The cornea and sclera are also important parts of the eye, but the lens specifically plays a crucial role in focusing light onto the retina. The sclera is the white outer layer of the eye that helps maintain the shape of the eye, while the cornea is the clear outer covering of the eye that helps to refract light into the eye.
4. How many liters are equal to 1800 ml?
- A. 1.8
- B. 18000
- C. 180
- D. 2800
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To convert milliliters (ml) to liters, divide by 1000 since 1 liter is equal to 1000 ml. Therefore, 1800 ml is equal to 1800/1000 = 1.8 liters. Choice A (1.8) is correct. Choice B (18000) is incorrect as it equates to 18000 liters, not 1.8 liters. Choice C (180) is incorrect as it represents 180 liters, not 1.8 liters. Choice D (2800) is incorrect as it does not reflect the conversion of 1800 ml to liters.
5. A client has experienced a right-hemispheric stroke. Which of the following is not an expected finding?
- A. Impulse control difficulty
- B. Left hemiplegia
- C. Loss of depth perception
- D. Aphasia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a right-hemispheric stroke, the expected findings include left-sided hemiplegia (Choice B), loss of depth perception (Choice C), and impulse control difficulty (Choice A). Aphasia (Choice D) is typically associated with left-hemispheric strokes. Therefore, aphasia is not an expected finding in a client who has experienced a right-hemispheric stroke.
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