ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. When administering digoxin 0.125 mg PO to an adult client, for which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium level 4.2 mEq/L.
- B. Apical pulse 58/min
- C. Digoxin level 1 ng/mL
- D. Constipation for 2 days
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Monitoring the digoxin level is crucial as it helps determine the drug's effectiveness and potential toxicity. A digoxin level of 1 ng/mL is within the therapeutic range. However, levels above this range can lead to toxicity, causing adverse effects like nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, and dysrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should report a digoxin level of 1 ng/mL to the provider for further evaluation and potential dose adjustment.
2. How many drops are equivalent to 1 tsp?
- A. 15
- B. 60
- C. 10
- D. 30
Correct answer: B
Rationale: 1 teaspoon (tsp) is equivalent to approximately 60 drops. Drops and teaspoons vary in volume and size, affecting the conversion ratio. Choice A (15 drops) is incorrect as it's a common misconception. Choice C (10 drops) and Choice D (30 drops) do not align with the standard conversion of 1 tsp to 60 drops.
3. During an assessment, a healthcare provider observes a client with a chest tube and drainage system. What is an expected finding?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
- B. Gentle constant bubbling in the suction control chamber
- C. Drainage system positioned upright at chest level
- D. Exposed sutures without dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assessing a client with a chest tube and drainage system, gentle constant bubbling in the suction control chamber is an expected finding. This indicates that the system is functioning properly. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber would suggest an air leak, the drainage system should be positioned upright at chest level to promote proper drainage, and exposed sutures without dressing would be an incorrect finding as they should be covered to prevent infection.
4. A client is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Dehydration is treated with calcium supplements.
- B. Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.
- C. Dehydration is associated with gastroesophageal reflux.
- D. Dehydration is caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Dehydration can lead to an imbalance in electrolytes and cause uterine irritability, potentially leading to preterm contractions. It is essential for the nurse to educate the client on the importance of adequate hydration to reduce the risk of preterm labor. The statement 'Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor' directly addresses the client's condition and provides relevant information for their understanding and management of the situation.
5. A client is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which of the following supplies should NOT be in the client's room?
- A. Oxygen equipment
- B. Incentive spirometer
- C. Pulse oximeter
- D. Sterile dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a thoracentesis procedure, the focus is on draining fluid or air from the pleural space. An incentive spirometer, which helps improve lung function, is not a necessary supply for this specific procedure. Oxygen equipment, pulse oximeter for monitoring oxygen saturation levels, and sterile dressing for wound care may be needed during or after the procedure.
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