a nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to repor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, warmth and redness in the calf. These symptoms may indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious complication following hip arthroplasty that requires immediate attention. A heart rate of 90/min and blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate an urgent issue. Pink-tinged urine may suggest blood in the urine, which should be monitored but is not as critical as the potential DVT.

2. A client with deep vein thrombosis receiving heparin therapy needs monitoring. Which test should the nurse use to regulate the medication dosage?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). aPTT is specifically used to monitor and regulate heparin therapy as it assesses the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, which heparin affects. Options A and B, Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR), are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Option D, Fibrinogen levels, is not the primary test used to monitor heparin therapy.

3. A nurse is assessing a client in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, with a fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for 15 minutes, the nurse should suspect maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can result in fetal bradycardia, which is defined as an FHR less than 110 beats per minute. Maternal hypoglycemia requires prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the fetus. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to present with other signs such as pallor or tachycardia rather than bradycardia. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is characterized by maternal fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling amniotic fluid, but it is not directly linked to the FHR baseline being 100/min.

4. A client is experiencing a seizure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a seizure, it is essential to loosen tight clothing around the client to prevent injury and promote adequate ventilation. Placing any objects, like a tongue depressor, in the client's mouth can lead to airway obstruction or injury. Restraining the client's arms and legs can exacerbate the situation by increasing muscle rigidity and potentially causing injury. Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is not typically indicated during a seizure unless respiratory distress is present.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is receiving opioid analgesics. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 12/min may indicate respiratory depression, a potential side effect of opioid analgesics. Respiratory depression can be a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but a low respiratory rate is a more critical finding that warrants immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

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