Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Massage the affected extremity to promote circulation.
• B. Elevate the affected extremity.
• C. Apply cold packs to the affected extremity.
• D. Perform range-of-motion exercises on the affected extremity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with DVT is to apply cold packs to the affected extremity. Cold packs can help reduce swelling and pain by constricting blood vessels. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge a clot and worsen the condition. Elevating the affected extremity helps with blood flow but is not the priority intervention for DVT. Performing range-of-motion exercises on the affected extremity can also dislodge a clot and is contraindicated.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing education material for a client. Which technique should the healthcare provider use in creating the material?

• A. Emphasize important information using bold lettering.
• B. Use a 7th-grade reading level.
• C. Avoid using cartoons in the material.
• D. Use words with three or four syllables.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using a 7th-grade reading level is the most effective technique when creating education material for clients because it ensures that the content is easily understood by a wide range of individuals. Option A, emphasizing important information with bold lettering, may help draw attention but doesn't guarantee comprehension. Option C, avoiding cartoons, is not necessarily a universal rule and can sometimes make material more engaging. Option D, using words with three or four syllables, can make the material more complex and harder to understand, defeating the purpose of effective communication in education material.

3. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
• C. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Chloride 100 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

4. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following foods should be recommended?

• A. Almonds
• B. Spinach
• C. Yogurt
• D. Carrots

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Yogurt is a calcium-rich food that helps strengthen bones and should be recommended to clients with osteoporosis. Almonds, spinach, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as yogurt and are not as beneficial for individuals with osteoporosis.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Resume a regular diet immediately.
• B. Remove the adhesive bandage after 3 days.
• C. Begin moderate activity immediately.
• D. Take a tub bath instead of a shower.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The adhesive bandage should be removed 3 days after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy to allow the incision to heal properly. Choice A is incorrect as the client should start with a clear liquid diet and advance to a regular diet as tolerated. Choice C is incorrect because the client should gradually increase activity levels as tolerated. Choice D is incorrect as the client should avoid tub baths and opt for showers to prevent infection and promote healing.

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