ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Withhold all medications until after dialysis.
- B. Rehydrate with dextrose 5% in water for orthostatic hypotension.
- C. Check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis.
- D. Give an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client receiving hemodialysis is to check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis. This is crucial to detect any bleeding complications and ensure prompt intervention if necessary. Withholding all medications until after dialysis (Choice A) is not appropriate as some medications may need to be administered during dialysis. Rehydrating with dextrose 5% in water for orthostatic hypotension (Choice B) is not directly related to the immediate post-dialysis care. Giving an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis (Choice D) is not recommended as timing of medication administration should be based on the specific antibiotic and its pharmacokinetics.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Cross your legs when sitting to increase circulation.
- B. Bend at the waist when picking up objects.
- C. Avoid crossing your legs when sitting.
- D. Avoid using a raised toilet seat.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Avoid crossing your legs when sitting.' After a total hip arthroplasty, it is important for clients to avoid crossing their legs to prevent complications such as dislocation. Crossing the legs can put strain on the new hip joint, increasing the risk of dislocation. Choice A is incorrect as crossing legs can be harmful. Choice B is incorrect as bending at the waist can strain the hip joint, leading to complications. Choice D is incorrect as using a raised toilet seat is recommended after hip surgery to prevent excessive bending at the hip joint.
3. A client has a nasogastric tube for gastric decompression. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Check for the presence of bowel sounds every 8 hours.
- B. Flush the NG tube every 24 hours.
- C. Provide the client with sips of water every 2 hours.
- D. Keep the client's head of the bed elevated to 45 degrees.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to keep the client's head of the bed elevated to 45 degrees. This position helps prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube for gastric decompression by reducing the risk of reflux and promoting proper drainage. Choice A is incorrect because checking for bowel sounds is not directly related to the care of a nasogastric tube. Choice B is incorrect as flushing the NG tube every 24 hours is not a standard nursing practice and may lead to complications. Choice C is incorrect because providing sips of water may interfere with the purpose of gastric decompression, which is to keep the stomach empty.
4. Which medication is commonly prescribed for a patient with a history of heart failure?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Metoprolol
- C. Digoxin
- D. Aspirin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is the correct answer. It is a common diuretic used in patients with heart failure to reduce fluid overload. Metoprolol (Choice B) is a beta-blocker often prescribed to manage heart failure symptoms by improving heart function. Digoxin (Choice C) is used in heart failure patients to help the heart beat stronger and with a more regular rhythm. Aspirin (Choice D) is not typically prescribed for heart failure but may be used in patients with heart disease for its antiplatelet effects.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 5.0 mEq/L
- B. Blood pressure 136/84 mm Hg
- C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- D. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L is at the upper limit of normal and should be monitored closely in clients taking spironolactone, which is potassium-sparing. Elevated potassium levels can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in individuals on potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels are crucial to prevent potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood pressure (choice B), sodium level (choice C), and calcium level (choice D) are not directly related to the use of spironolactone and do not require immediate reporting in this scenario.
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