Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and is receiving 3% sodium chloride via continuous IV. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the SIADH is resolving?

• A. Urine specific gravity 1.020
• B. Sodium 119 mEq/L
• C. BUN 8 mg/dL
• D. Calcium 8.7 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.020 is within the expected reference range and indicates that the kidneys are appropriately concentrating urine, which is a sign that the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is resolving. A low sodium level (choice B) is associated with SIADH, so a sodium level of 119 mEq/L is not indicative of resolution. BUN (choice C) and calcium levels (choice D) are typically not directly related to SIADH resolution.

2. When caring for a patient with a burn injury, what is the priority intervention?

• A. Monitor the burn area for infection
• B. Administer IV fluids
• C. Debride the burn area
• D. Apply a dry dressing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority intervention when caring for a patient with a burn injury is to monitor the burn area for infection. This is crucial to prevent further complications such as sepsis. While administering IV fluids is important for fluid resuscitation, it is not the top priority compared to preventing infection. Debriding the burn area and applying a dry dressing are necessary interventions for wound care, but ensuring there is no infection takes precedence to avoid sepsis and other serious complications.

3. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. Elevated ST segments
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic ECG change seen in hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle, leading to T wave abnormalities. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments are more indicative of myocardial infarction or pericarditis. Widened QRS complexes are commonly associated with conditions like bundle branch blocks or certain toxicities.

4. What is the priority action for a patient experiencing chest pain from acute coronary syndrome?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Obtain IV access
• C. Check the patient's cardiac enzymes
• D. Administer aspirin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps relieve chest pain by dilating blood vessels and improving blood flow to the heart, which is crucial in managing acute coronary syndrome. While obtaining IV access and checking cardiac enzymes are important steps in the assessment and management of acute coronary syndrome, administering nitroglycerin takes precedence to alleviate symptoms and reduce cardiac tissue damage. Administering aspirin is also essential in the treatment of acute coronary syndrome, but it is not the immediate priority in this scenario.

5. What dietary changes should a patient with GERD make to manage their symptoms?

• A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
• B. Eat large, frequent meals
• C. Consume liquids with meals
• D. Eat small, frequent meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid mint and spicy foods. Patients with GERD should avoid foods like mint and spicy dishes as they can trigger symptoms by increasing gastric acid secretion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating large, frequent meals can exacerbate GERD symptoms by putting more pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, consuming liquids with meals can lead to increased reflux, and eating small, frequent meals is the recommended approach to reduce symptoms and manage GERD.

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