a nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone siadh and is receiving 3 sodium chloride via continuous iv which

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ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and is receiving 3% sodium chloride via continuous IV. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the SIADH is resolving?

A. Urine specific gravity 1.020
B. Sodium 119 mEq/L
C. BUN 8 mg/dL
D. Calcium 8.7 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.020 is within the expected reference range and indicates that the kidneys are appropriately concentrating urine, which is a sign that the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is resolving. A low sodium level (choice B) is associated with SIADH, so a sodium level of 119 mEq/L is not indicative of resolution. BUN (choice C) and calcium levels (choice D) are typically not directly related to SIADH resolution.

2. What is the priority lab value to monitor in a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
B. White blood cell count 4,500/mm3
C. Potassium levels 3.5-5.0 mEq/L
D. Hemoglobin levels below 12g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV to assess the status of their immune system. A CD4 count of 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and a high risk of opportunistic infections. This value is used to guide treatment decisions and assess the need for prophylaxis against specific infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring white blood cell count, potassium levels, and hemoglobin levels, although important in HIV patients, are not as crucial as monitoring the CD4 T-cell count for assessing immune function and disease progression.

3. What is a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG?

A. Flattened T waves
B. ST elevation
C. Prominent U waves
D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. When potassium levels are low, it can lead to changes in the ECG, such as T wave flattening. This alteration is important to recognize as it indicates potential electrolyte imbalances. ST elevation (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction. Prominent U waves (Choice C) are associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are more specific. Widened QRS complex (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like hyperkalemia.

4. What are the expected signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?

A. Restlessness, confusion, irritability
B. Severe headache and confusion
C. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia
D. Bradycardia and altered pupil response

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Restlessness, confusion, irritability. These are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP) and require prompt intervention. Restlessness, confusion, and irritability are indicative of the brain's attempt to compensate for the rising pressure. Choice B is incorrect because severe headache alone is not specific to IICP and can be present in various conditions. Choice C is incorrect because elevated blood pressure is not a common sign of IICP; instead, hypertension may be present in the compensatory stage. Choice D is incorrect as bradycardia and altered pupil response are signs of advanced IICP, not early signs. Monitoring and recognizing these early signs are crucial for timely intervention and preventing further complications.

5. A client has a right-sided pneumothorax, and a chest tube is inserted. Which finding indicates that the chest drainage system is functioning correctly?

A. Gentle bubbling in the suction chamber
B. Crepitus around the insertion site
C. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber
D. Absence of breath sounds on the right side

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a chest drainage system, gentle bubbling in the suction chamber indicates proper functioning, showing that the system is connected and working effectively to remove air or fluid from the pleural space. Crepitus around the insertion site (Choice B) suggests subcutaneous emphysema, not chest tube functionality. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber (Choice C) indicates an air leak. Absence of breath sounds on the right side (Choice D) is indicative of the pneumothorax, not the chest tube function.