Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient admitted with possible acute coronary syndrome?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Obtain cardiac enzymes
• C. Get IV access
• D. Auscultate heart sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This intervention is a priority for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome because nitroglycerin helps vasodilate coronary arteries, increase blood flow to the heart muscle, relieve chest pain, and reduce cardiac workload. Obtaining cardiac enzymes (choice B) is important for diagnosing myocardial infarction but is not the initial priority. Getting IV access (choice C) is essential for medication administration and fluid resuscitation but is not the priority over administering nitroglycerin. Auscultating heart sounds (choice D) is a routine assessment but does not address the immediate need to relieve chest pain and improve blood flow to the heart in acute coronary syndrome.

2. A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which of the following referrals should the nurse plan to initiate?

• A. Respiratory therapy
• B. Hospice care
• C. Occupational therapy
• D. Dietary services

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dietary services. Referring the client to dietary services is essential for managing nutrition, including monitoring sodium, potassium, and protein intake, which are crucial aspects of managing chronic kidney disease (CKD). Respiratory therapy (choice A) focuses on managing respiratory conditions, which are not directly related to CKD. Hospice care (choice B) is not appropriate for a new diagnosis of CKD as it is designed for end-of-life care. Occupational therapy (choice C) is beneficial for improving activities of daily living but is not the priority referral for a new CKD diagnosis.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a permanent spinal cord injury and is scheduled for discharge. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client is coping effectively?

• A. I would like to play wheelchair basketball. When I get stronger, I think I'll look for a league.
• B. I'm glad I'll only be in this wheelchair temporarily. I can't wait to get back to running.
• C. I'm so upset that this happened to me. What did I do to deserve this?
• D. I feel like I'll never be able to do anything that I want to again. All I am is a burden to my family.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it shows that the client has accepted their disability and is looking towards the future with realistic goals. This positive attitude and focus on engaging in activities that are achievable despite the disability indicate effective coping mechanisms. Choice B is incorrect as it reflects denial of the permanent nature of the disability. Choice C is incorrect as it shows feelings of anger and possible self-blame, which are not indicative of effective coping. Choice D is incorrect as it demonstrates a sense of hopelessness and self-perceived burden, which are signs of maladaptive coping.

4. Which lab value is a priority for a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
• B. Albumin levels below 3.5 g/dL
• C. Potassium levels below 3.5 mEq/L
• D. White blood cell count below 5000/mm3

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count of less than 180 cells/mm3 is a priority for a patient with HIV because it indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk for opportunistic infections. Monitoring CD4 levels helps in assessing the immune status and guiding treatment decisions in patients with HIV. Albumin levels (choice B) are important for assessing nutritional status but are not a direct indicator of immune function in HIV patients. Potassium levels (choice C) and white blood cell count (choice D) are also important, but the CD4 T-cell count is specifically crucial for evaluating the immune function in individuals with HIV.

5. What are the expected ECG changes in hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. ST elevation
• C. Wide QRS complex
• D. Tall T waves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are the most common ECG change seen in patients with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia leads to a decrease in serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. This results in T wave flattening or inversion. ST elevation is typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Wide QRS complex is more associated with hyperkalemia than hypokalemia. Tall T waves are often seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

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