Nursing Elites

1. What is the first medication to give to a patient with wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

• A. Albuterol via nebulizer
• B. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
• C. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
• D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by an allergic reaction because it is a fast-acting bronchodilator that helps to quickly open the airways, providing immediate relief of symptoms. Choice B, Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV, is a corticosteroid used for its anti-inflammatory effects but is not the initial medication for acute wheezing in an allergic reaction. Choice C, Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer, is a mast cell stabilizer that can be used for prevention but is not the first choice for acute symptom relief. Choice D, Aminophylline 500 mg IV, is a bronchodilator with a narrow therapeutic window and more side effects compared to Albuterol, making it a less preferred option as the initial treatment.

2. What teaching should be provided to a patient following an escharotomy for burn injuries?

• A. Monitor for infection
• B. Restrict fluid intake
• C. Avoid physical activity
• D. Limit phosphorus to 1,500 mg/day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Following an escharotomy for burn injuries, patients should be taught to monitor for infection and care for the incision site. Choice A is the correct answer because infection is a common risk after a procedure involving incisions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Restricting fluid intake is not typically advised after an escharotomy; avoiding physical activity may vary depending on the individual's condition and should be guided by healthcare providers; and limiting phosphorus to 1,500 mg/day is not directly related to post-escharotomy care.

3. A patient with GERD is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. What should the nurse recommend?

• A. Avoid mint and pepper
• B. Increase fluid intake before meals
• C. Eat three large meals per day
• D. Avoid drinking water with meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid foods like mint and pepper, as these can help reduce gastric acid secretion and alleviate symptoms. Mint and pepper are known to relax the lower esophageal sphincter, leading to increased reflux. Increasing fluid intake before meals (choice B) may worsen GERD symptoms by distending the stomach. Eating three large meals per day (choice C) can also aggravate GERD because large meals can lead to increased gastric pressure and reflux. Avoiding drinking water with meals (choice D) is generally recommended for GERD; however, the most crucial advice in this case is to avoid mint and pepper for better symptom management.

4. A nurse is teaching a client about using a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device to treat obstructive sleep apnea. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. It delivers a preset amount of inspiratory pressure throughout the breathing cycle
• B. It has a continuous adjustment feature that changes the airway pressure throughout the cycle
• C. It delivers a preset amount of airway pressure throughout the breathing cycle
• D. It delivers positive pressure at the end of each breath

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a CPAP device delivers a preset amount of positive airway pressure continuously throughout all inspiration and expiration cycles. Choice A is incorrect because CPAP does not deliver inspiratory pressure at the beginning of each breath; it provides continuous positive pressure. Choice B is incorrect because CPAP typically delivers a constant pressure rather than having a feature that changes pressure throughout the cycle. Choice D is incorrect as CPAP does not deliver positive pressure specifically at the end of each breath; it maintains a consistent pressure throughout the breathing cycle.

5. What ECG changes are seen with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Elevated ST segments
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and ultimately sine wave pattern. Elevated ST segments, prominent U waves, and widened QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

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