ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet
1. What is the first medication to administer to a patient experiencing wheezing due to an allergic reaction?
- A. Albuterol via nebulizer
- B. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
- C. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
- D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-choice medication for wheezing due to its fast-acting bronchodilatory effect, which helps in relieving the symptoms quickly. Choice B, Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV, is a corticosteroid used for its anti-inflammatory effects and would be beneficial in reducing inflammation in allergic reactions but is not the first-line treatment for wheezing. Choice C, Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer, is a mast cell stabilizer used to prevent asthma attacks but is not the immediate treatment for wheezing during an allergic reaction. Choice D, Aminophylline 500 mg IV, is a bronchodilator but is not typically the initial medication of choice for wheezing in an allergic reaction.
2. What are the adverse effects of radiation after a mastectomy?
- A. S3 heart sound, fatigue
- B. Pulselessness in the affected extremity
- C. SOB and JVD
- D. Localized pain, swelling, erythema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: S3 heart sound, fatigue. Radiation after a mastectomy can lead to fatigue and symptoms of heart failure, such as the presence of an S3 heart sound. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Pulselessness in the affected extremity would be more relevant to vascular complications, shortness of breath (SOB) and jugular venous distention (JVD) could indicate cardiac or respiratory issues unrelated to radiation, and localized pain, swelling, and erythema are more characteristic of a local inflammatory response rather than the systemic effects of radiation post-mastectomy.
3. What should be monitored in a patient with diabetes insipidus?
- A. Monitor urine specific gravity for values below 1.005
- B. Monitor for increased thirst
- C. Monitor serum albumin levels
- D. Monitor blood pressure closely
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with diabetes insipidus, monitoring urine specific gravity for values below 1.005 is crucial. Low urine specific gravity indicates excessive water loss, a key characteristic of diabetes insipidus. Monitoring for increased thirst (choice B) may be a symptom presented by the patient, but it does not directly reflect the condition's severity. Monitoring serum albumin levels (choice C) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. Monitoring blood pressure closely (choice D) is not a primary concern in diabetes insipidus unless severe dehydration leads to hypotension.
4. What intervention is needed for continuous bubbling in the chest tube water seal chamber?
- A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
- B. Clamp the chest tube
- C. Replace the chest tube system
- D. Continue monitoring the chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for continuous bubbling in the chest tube water seal chamber is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak in the system, and tightening the connections can help resolve this issue. Clamping the chest tube (Choice B) is not appropriate and can lead to complications by obstructing the drainage system. Similarly, replacing the entire chest tube system (Choice C) may not be necessary if the issue can be resolved by tightening the connections. Continuing to monitor the chest tube (Choice D) without taking action to address the continuous bubbling may delay necessary interventions to prevent complications.
5. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Prominent U waves
- C. Elevated ST segments
- D. Widened QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic ECG change seen in hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle, leading to T wave abnormalities. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments are more indicative of myocardial infarction or pericarditis. Widened QRS complexes are commonly associated with conditions like bundle branch blocks or certain toxicities.
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