ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has fibromyalgia and requests pain medication. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
- A. Pregabalin
- B. Lorazepam
- C. Colchicine
- D. Codeine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregabalin. Pregabalin is a first-line medication for treating pain in clients with fibromyalgia. It works by decreasing the number of pain signals sent out by damaged nerves. Choice B, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not indicated for fibromyalgia pain. Choice C, Colchicine, is used to treat gout by reducing inflammation and not indicated for fibromyalgia. Choice D, Codeine, is an opioid analgesic that is not typically recommended for fibromyalgia due to concerns about tolerance and dependence.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postpartum and is breastfeeding her newborn. The client asks the nurse to warm up seaweed soup that her partner brought for her. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Does the doctor know you are eating that?
- B. Why are you eating seaweed soup?
- C. Of course, I will heat that up for you.
- D. The hospital food is more nutritious.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Respecting cultural preferences promotes trust and client-centered care.
3. What is the priority intervention for a patient with dehydration?
- A. Administer IV fluids
- B. Monitor intake and output
- C. Administer oral fluids
- D. Provide electrolyte replacement
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer IV fluids. This intervention is the priority as it helps rapidly restore hydration in patients with dehydration by delivering fluids directly into the bloodstream. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is important but comes after providing immediate fluid resuscitation. Administering oral fluids (choice C) may not be sufficient for a patient with dehydration who requires rapid rehydration. Providing electrolyte replacement (choice D) is essential but often follows fluid resuscitation to correct any electrolyte imbalances resulting from dehydration.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum calcium.
- C. Serum potassium.
- D. Serum glucose.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so serum potassium should be monitored to evaluate its effectiveness. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia as a side effect. Serum sodium, serum calcium, and serum glucose levels are not directly affected by spironolactone and would not provide an accurate assessment of the medication's effectiveness.
5. A client who is 14 weeks of gestation reports swelling of the face. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Administer an analgesic.
- B. Report this finding to the provider immediately.
- C. Administer an antiemetic.
- D. Monitor the client's vital signs.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to report this finding to the provider immediately. Swelling of the face in pregnancy can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the kidneys. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications for both the client and the fetus. Administering an analgesic (choice A) is not appropriate for this situation as it does not address the underlying cause of the swelling. Administering an antiemetic (choice C) is used to treat nausea and vomiting, which are not the primary concerns associated with facial swelling in this scenario. Monitoring the client's vital signs (choice D) is important but should be done after reporting the finding to the provider to guide further assessment and management.
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