ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has fibromyalgia and requests pain medication. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
- A. Pregabalin
- B. Lorazepam
- C. Colchicine
- D. Codeine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregabalin. Pregabalin is a first-line medication for treating pain in clients with fibromyalgia. It works by decreasing the number of pain signals sent out by damaged nerves. Choice B, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not indicated for fibromyalgia pain. Choice C, Colchicine, is used to treat gout by reducing inflammation and not indicated for fibromyalgia. Choice D, Codeine, is an opioid analgesic that is not typically recommended for fibromyalgia due to concerns about tolerance and dependence.
2. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider recommend as the best source of calcium?
- A. Broccoli
- B. Cheddar cheese
- C. Almonds
- D. Fortified orange juice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is a rich source of calcium and should be recommended to clients with osteoporosis. While broccoli and almonds also contain calcium, cheddar cheese provides a higher amount per serving. Fortified orange juice may contain added calcium, but it is not as concentrated a source as cheddar cheese. Therefore, the best choice for a client with osteoporosis seeking a high calcium food is cheddar cheese.
3. A nurse is caring for a client in labor who is receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse notes early decelerations. Which of the following should the nurse expect?
- A. Fetal hypoxia
- B. Abruptio placentae
- C. Post maturity
- D. Head compression
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a nurse notes early decelerations in electronic fetal monitoring, it indicates head compression, which is generally considered benign and not associated with fetal hypoxia, abruptio placentae, or post maturity. Early decelerations mirror the uterine contractions and are a normal response to fetal head compression during labor.
4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?
- A. Consume foods high in bran fiber.
- B. Increase intake of milk products.
- C. Sweeten foods with fructose corn syrup.
- D. Increase intake of foods high in gluten.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is to consume foods high in bran fiber. Bran fiber promotes regularity and helps reduce IBS symptoms by aiding digestion and preventing constipation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of milk products may exacerbate IBS symptoms in some individuals due to lactose intolerance. Sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup can worsen IBS symptoms as it may cause bloating and gas. Increasing intake of foods high in gluten may also be problematic for individuals with IBS as gluten-containing foods can trigger symptoms like abdominal pain and diarrhea.
5. Which lab value is critical for patients on warfarin therapy?
- A. Monitor INR
- B. Monitor potassium levels
- C. Monitor sodium levels
- D. Monitor platelet count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels for patients on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is essential because it helps assess the clotting tendency of the blood and ensures that patients are within the therapeutic range to prevent both blood clots and excessive bleeding. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B), sodium levels (Choice C), or platelet count (Choice D) is not specifically required for patients on warfarin therapy and does not directly impact the effectiveness or safety of the medication.
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