ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. What is the primary action when a healthcare provider discovers a patient has fallen?
- A. Assess the patient for injuries
- B. Call for help immediately
- C. Document the fall
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a healthcare provider discovers a patient has fallen, the primary action should be to assess the patient for injuries. This is crucial to determine the extent of harm and if immediate treatment is necessary. Calling for help is important, but assessing the patient's condition takes precedence to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. While documenting the fall and notifying the healthcare provider are essential steps, they come after assessing the patient's injuries.
2. A client who has a new prescription for spironolactone is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid foods that are high in potassium.
- B. I will avoid foods that are high in sodium.
- C. I will need to have my blood pressure checked regularly while taking this medication.
- D. I will need to have my potassium levels checked regularly while taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking spironolactone should have their potassium levels checked regularly. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and can lead to hyperkalemia if levels become too high. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding foods high in potassium, sodium, or monitoring blood pressure are not specific to the teaching related to spironolactone.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.
- B. Verify the client's blood type and Rh factor.
- C. Administer the blood over 8 hours.
- D. Use a 22-gauge needle for venous access.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type and Rh factor. This action is crucial to ensure that the correct blood is administered, matching the client's blood type and Rh factor, which helps prevent transfusion reactions. Priming the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice A) is not directly related to ensuring the correct blood product is administered. Administering the blood over 8 hours (Choice C) is not the standard practice for packed RBCs, which are usually given over a shorter period. Using a 22-gauge needle for venous access (Choice D) is not specific to the preparation for administering packed RBCs.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide and requires close monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia as frequently as it causes hypokalemia.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation. The nurse should report which of the following laboratory results to the provider?
- A. Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL
- B. Platelet count 148,000/mm3
- C. Leukocyte count 9,000/mm3
- D. Blood glucose 80 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A hemoglobin level of 11.2 g/dL is below the normal range for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and should be reported to the provider.
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