Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV bolus of morphine to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Check the client's respiratory rate.
• B. Administer naloxone.
• C. Check the client's pain level.
• D. Assess the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Checking the client's respiratory rate is the priority before administering morphine because morphine can depress respiration. This action helps the healthcare professional assess the client's baseline respiratory status and detect any potential respiratory depression that may be exacerbated by morphine. Choice B, administering naloxone, is incorrect because naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose and not routinely administered before giving morphine. Choice C, checking the client's pain level, is important but not the first action to take before administering morphine. Choice D, assessing the client's blood pressure, is also important but not the initial priority compared to evaluating respiratory status when preparing to administer morphine.

2. A client who is 14 weeks of gestation reports swelling of the face. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Administer an analgesic.
• B. Report this finding to the provider immediately.
• C. Administer an antiemetic.
• D. Monitor the client's vital signs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to report this finding to the provider immediately. Swelling of the face in pregnancy can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the kidneys. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications for both the client and the fetus. Administering an analgesic (choice A) is not appropriate for this situation as it does not address the underlying cause of the swelling. Administering an antiemetic (choice C) is used to treat nausea and vomiting, which are not the primary concerns associated with facial swelling in this scenario. Monitoring the client's vital signs (choice D) is important but should be done after reporting the finding to the provider to guide further assessment and management.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor, and the FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What should the nurse suspect?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, which is indicated by a baseline FHR of 100/min. In this scenario, the sustained low baseline FHR suggests a possible link to maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) usually causes fetal tachycardia as a compensatory mechanism to deliver more oxygen to tissues. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is associated with maternal fever and an elevated fetal heart rate, not a sustained low baseline FHR.

4. A client, 12 hours postpartum, reports not having a bowel movement for 4 days. Which medication should the nurse administer?

• A. Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository.
• B. Magnesium hydroxide 30 ml PO.
• C. Famotidine 20 mg PO.
• D. Loperamide 4 mg PO.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository. The client's report of not having a bowel movement for 4 days indicates constipation, and Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that helps initiate bowel movements. Magnesium hydroxide is an antacid and osmotic laxative used for indigestion, not for constipation. Famotidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used to reduce stomach acid production and treat heartburn, not constipation. Loperamide is an antidiarrheal agent and would be contraindicated in a client experiencing constipation.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis receiving heparin therapy needs monitoring. Which test should the nurse use to regulate the medication dosage?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Fibrinogen levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). aPTT is specifically used to monitor and regulate heparin therapy as it assesses the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, which heparin affects. Options A and B, Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR), are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Option D, Fibrinogen levels, is not the primary test used to monitor heparin therapy.

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