ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Serum potassium 4.5 mEq/L
- B. Serum calcium 9.2 mg/dL
- C. Serum creatinine 2.5 mg/dL
- D. Serum albumin 3.5 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevated serum creatinine levels indicate impaired kidney function. As kidney disease progresses, the kidneys are less able to filter waste products, leading to an increase in creatinine levels. Therefore, a high serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dL should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly signify worsening kidney function in this context.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased shortness of breath.
- B. Decreased peripheral edema.
- C. Increased jugular venous distention.
- D. Increased heart rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased peripheral edema. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing fluid overload in clients with heart failure by increasing urine output. A decrease in peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively removing excess fluid from the body. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate an improvement in the client's condition. Increased shortness of breath, increased jugular venous distention, and increased heart rate are all signs of worsening heart failure and would not be expected findings when furosemide is effective.
3. A client reports intimate partner violence to a nurse. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Develop a safety plan with the client.
- B. Refer the client to a community support group.
- C. Determine if the client has any injuries.
- D. Ensure the client has access to legal services.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to develop a safety plan with the client. When a client reports intimate partner violence, the priority is ensuring their immediate safety. Developing a safety plan involves identifying safe places, emergency contacts, and strategies to protect the client from harm. Referring the client to a community support group (Choice B) can be helpful but not the immediate priority. While determining if the client has any injuries (Choice C) is important for assessing their physical well-being, the priority is to ensure their safety. Ensuring the client has access to legal services (Choice D) is crucial, but it is not the immediate priority when the client is at risk of violence.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is a common concern for patients on loop diuretics?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Loop diuretics can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This imbalance is a common concern because potassium plays a vital role in various physiological functions, including maintaining proper heart function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because loop diuretics typically do not cause hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, or hypercalcemia.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?
- A. Continuous murmur.
- B. Absent peripheral pulses.
- C. Increased blood pressure.
- D. Bounding pulses.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A continuous murmur is a classic finding in a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. This murmur is typically heard between the first and second heart sounds and throughout systole. Absent peripheral pulses (choice B) are not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus. Increased blood pressure (choice C) and bounding pulses (choice D) are not commonly seen with this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
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