ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the orientation phase of the therapeutic relationship. Which statement should the nurse make during this phase?
- A. Let's talk about how you can change your response to stress.
- B. We should establish our roles in the initial session.
- C. Let me show you simple relaxation exercises to manage stress.
- D. We should discuss resources to implement in your daily life.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During the orientation phase of the therapeutic relationship, it is crucial to establish roles. This helps both the client and the nurse understand their responsibilities, boundaries, and expectations within the therapeutic process. Choice A is more focused on the working phase where strategies and interventions are discussed. Choice C is more suitable for the working phase where specific techniques are usually introduced. Choice D is also more relevant to the working phase as it involves discussing practical resources for implementation in daily life.
2. What is object-relations theory?
- A. It is the theory that focuses on observable behaviors only.
- B. It is a newer psychodynamic theory focusing on how individuals interact with others and their internalized relationships.
- C. It is the theory that emphasizes the importance of cognitive processes in shaping behavior.
- D. It is a cognitive-behavioral theory focused on changing maladaptive thought patterns.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Object-relations theory is a psychodynamic theory that focuses on how individuals interact with others and their internalized relationships. Choice A is incorrect because object-relations theory goes beyond observable behaviors to explore internalized relationships. Choice C is incorrect because object-relations theory does not primarily emphasize cognitive processes. Choice D is incorrect because object-relations theory is not a cognitive-behavioral theory focused on changing thought patterns.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Client reports taking warfarin
- B. Client has a history of hypertension
- C. Client ate a light breakfast 2 hours prior
- D. Client reports a history of smoking 10 cigarettes a day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding during surgery. It is crucial for the provider to be informed about the client taking warfarin to adjust the treatment plan accordingly. Choices B, C, and D are not as critical to report for surgical planning. A history of hypertension (B) is important but may not require immediate intervention for surgery. Eating a light breakfast 2 hours prior (C) is a normal preoperative instruction. Smoking history (D) is relevant for overall health assessment but is not as urgent as the use of warfarin before surgery.
4. A 57-year-old male presents to his primary care provider with a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness. A blood smear reveals an increased number of erythrocytes, indicating:
- A. Leukemia
- B. Sideroblastic anemia
- C. Hemosiderosis
- D. Polycythemia vera
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this case, the symptoms of a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness along with an increased number of erythrocytes in the blood smear are indicative of polycythemia vera. This condition is characterized by the overproduction of red blood cells, leading to symptoms related to increased blood volume and viscosity. Leukemia (Choice A) is a cancer of the blood and bone marrow, but the presentation described here is more suggestive of polycythemia vera. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice B) is characterized by abnormal iron deposits in erythroblasts, not an increased number of erythrocytes. Hemosiderosis (Choice C) refers to abnormal accumulation of iron in the body, not an increase in red blood cells as seen in polycythemia vera.
5. A nurse assesses a male patient who has developed gynecomastia while receiving treatment for peptic ulcers. Which medication from the patient�s history should the nurse recognize as a contributing factor?
- A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
- B. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
- C. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
- D. Omeprazole (Prilosec)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cimetidine binds to androgen receptors, producing receptor blockade, which can cause enlarged breast tissue, reduced libido, and impotence. All these effects reverse when dosing stops. Amoxicillin, metronidazole, and omeprazole are not associated with gynecomastia.
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