ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about therapeutic techniques to use when leading a group on a mental health unit. Which of the following group facilitation techniques should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Share personal opinions to help influence the group's values.
- B. Measure the accomplishments of the group against a previous group.
- C. Yield in situations of conflicts to maintain group harmony.
- D. Use modeling to help the clients improve their interpersonal skills.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use modeling to help the clients improve their interpersonal skills.' Modeling is an effective therapeutic technique where the leader demonstrates appropriate behaviors for the group to learn from. This technique can help clients improve their interpersonal skills by observing and replicating positive behaviors. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Sharing personal opinions to influence the group's values may not be appropriate as it could hinder the group dynamics and individual autonomy. Comparing accomplishments against a previous group is not a recommended technique as each group is unique, and comparisons may not be beneficial. Yielding in conflicts to maintain group harmony may lead to unresolved issues and hinder the group's progress.
2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Administer the medication intramuscularly.
- B. Inject the medication into the client's abdomen.
- C. Massage the injection site after administration.
- D. Aspirate for blood return before administering.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to inject the medication into the client's abdomen. Enoxaparin is a medication that should be administered subcutaneously into the abdomen to ensure proper absorption. Choice A is incorrect because enoxaparin should not be administered intramuscularly. Choice C is incorrect because massaging the injection site after administration is not recommended for enoxaparin injections. Choice D is incorrect because aspirating for blood return is not necessary before administering a subcutaneous injection like enoxaparin.
3. A client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis should be placed in which type of room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens?
- A. Administer isoniazid by mouth daily.
- B. Place the client in droplet isolation.
- C. Wear a surgical mask when transporting the client.
- D. Place the client in a negative pressure room.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients diagnosed with tuberculosis should be placed in a negative pressure room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option A is incorrect because administering isoniazid is a treatment for tuberculosis, not a preventive measure related to infection control. Option B is incorrect as droplet isolation is used for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Option C is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask is not sufficient to prevent the spread of tuberculosis in healthcare settings; placing the client in a negative pressure room is the most effective measure.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
- B. Check the client's peripheral pulse every 30 minutes.
- C. Obtain a prescription for restraints within 4 hours.
- D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario presented, the correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with a verbal prescription for restraints due to acute mania is to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. Documenting at regular intervals is essential to monitor the client's well-being, assess the effects of the restraints, and ensure the client's safety. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary as the focus should be on monitoring the client's condition. Checking the client's peripheral pulse every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not as crucial as documenting the overall condition. Obtaining a prescription for restraints within 4 hours (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed when a verbal prescription is already obtained.
5. A client has a nasogastric tube and is receiving intermittent enteral feedings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?
- A. Administer a bolus feeding over 10 minutes.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
- C. Flush the tube with 10 mL of sterile water before feedings.
- D. Position the client on the left side during feedings.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube receiving intermittent enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of the feeding contents. Administering a bolus feeding over 10 minutes (choice A) may not prevent aspiration as effectively as elevating the head of the bed. Flushing the tube with sterile water before feedings (choice C) is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (choice D) is not the recommended action to prevent aspiration; elevating the head of the bed is more effective.
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