ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased bilirubin levels
- B. Decreased albumin levels
- C. Increased prothrombin time
- D. Decreased serum glucose levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Increased bilirubin levels are expected in clients with cirrhosis due to impaired liver function. Elevated bilirubin levels are commonly seen in cirrhosis as the liver's ability to process bilirubin is compromised. Decreased albumin levels and increased prothrombin time are also associated with cirrhosis, but the most specific finding related to liver dysfunction among the choices provided is increased bilirubin levels. Decreased serum glucose levels are not typically associated with cirrhosis.
2. A nurse is teaching a group of newly licensed nurses about measures to take when caring for a client who is on contact precautions. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Remove the protective gown after leaving the client's room
- B. Place the client in a room with positive pressure
- C. Wear gloves when providing care to the client
- D. Wear a mask when entering the client's room
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct measure to include when caring for a client on contact precautions is to wear gloves when providing care. Gloves help prevent the spread of infection and cross-contamination. Choice A is incorrect because the protective gown should be removed before leaving the client's room to prevent the spread of pathogens. Choice B is incorrect as clients on contact precautions should be in a room with negative pressure to prevent the spread of airborne contaminants. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a mask when changing linens is not specifically required for contact precautions.
3. A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hours postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hours following surgery.
- B. Give cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hours.
- C. Apply a warm compress to the operative site every 4 hours.
- D. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours is crucial in managing postoperative pain for the child. This helps control pain levels effectively, promoting comfort and aiding in the recovery process. Offering small amounts of clear liquids 6 hours following surgery may not be appropriate as the child may need time to recover from anesthesia. Giving cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hours is not indicated for postoperative care following appendicitis surgery. Applying a warm compress every 4 hours to the operative site may not be recommended as it can potentially interfere with the surgical wound healing process.
4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for prednisone. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid crowded places to reduce my risk of infection.
- B. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience nausea.
- D. I will take this medication for 2 weeks and then stop.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I will avoid crowded places to reduce my risk of infection.' When taking prednisone, clients should avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. Choice B is incorrect because prednisone is usually taken with food to reduce stomach upset. Choice C is incorrect because clients should not stop taking prednisone abruptly, even if they experience nausea. Choice D is incorrect because prednisone should be tapered off gradually under healthcare provider guidance instead of being stopped abruptly after 2 weeks.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?
- A. White blood cell count of 4,500/mm³
- B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL
- C. Platelet count of 90,000/mm³
- D. Serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding and requires immediate intervention. Thrombocytopenia can lead to serious bleeding complications, so it is crucial to address this finding promptly. A low white blood cell count (choice A) may indicate neutropenia but is not as immediately life-threatening as severe thrombocytopenia. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL (choice B) would require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing a critically low platelet count. A serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L (choice D) is on the lower side of normal but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's safety compared to severe thrombocytopenia.
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