Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new diagnosis of COPD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Breathe rapidly through your mouth when using the incentive spirometer.
• B. Use pursed-lip breathing during periods of dyspnea.
• C. Avoid drinking fluids during meals.
• D. Use diaphragmatic breathing during periods of dyspnea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a beneficial technique for clients with COPD as it helps control shortness of breath and improves oxygenation. This technique involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling through pursed lips, which helps keep airways open. Option A is incorrect as breathing rapidly through the mouth when using the incentive spirometer can lead to hyperventilation. Option C is incorrect because it is important for clients with COPD to stay hydrated by drinking fluids between meals, but not during meals which can cause bloating and discomfort. Option D is incorrect as diaphragmatic breathing, though beneficial, is not the preferred technique for managing dyspnea in COPD; pursed-lip breathing is more effective.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased shortness of breath.
• B. Decreased peripheral edema.
• C. Increased jugular venous distention.
• D. Increased heart rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased peripheral edema. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing fluid overload in clients with heart failure by increasing urine output. A decrease in peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively removing excess fluid from the body. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate an improvement in the client's condition. Increased shortness of breath, increased jugular venous distention, and increased heart rate are all signs of worsening heart failure and would not be expected findings when furosemide is effective.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Apply a dry dressing.
• B. Cleanse the wound with normal saline.
• C. Perform debridement as needed.
• D. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. For a stage 2 pressure injury, maintaining a moist environment is crucial for healing. Hydrocolloid dressings help achieve this by promoting autolytic debridement and creating a barrier against bacteria while allowing the wound to heal. Applying a dry dressing (Choice A) may not provide the necessary moisture for healing. Cleansing the wound with normal saline (Choice B) is essential, but a hydrocolloid dressing is more specific for promoting healing in this case. Performing debridement as needed (Choice C) is not typically indicated for stage 2 pressure injuries, as they involve partial-thickness skin loss without slough or eschar.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• B. I will check my blood pressure at least once a week.
• C. I should increase my intake of dairy products.
• D. I should exercise for 30 minutes at least 5 days a week.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Exercising for 30 minutes at least 5 days a week helps manage hypertension by promoting cardiovascular health. Statements A, B, and C are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in potassium is not necessary unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider. Checking blood pressure once a week is not frequent enough for effective monitoring. Increasing dairy product intake is not a recommended approach to managing hypertension.

5. A parent is being taught by a nurse how to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of how to place the infant in the crib at bedtime?

• A. Place the infant on their stomach to sleep.
• B. Place the infant on their side to sleep.
• C. Place the infant on their back to sleep.
• D. Allow the infant to sleep with a pacifier.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Place the infant on their back to sleep.' This statement indicates an understanding of the recommended sleep position to reduce the risk of SIDS. Placing infants on their back is the safest sleep position according to guidelines to prevent SIDS. Choices A and B are incorrect as placing the infant on their stomach or side increases the risk of SIDS. While allowing the infant to sleep with a pacifier can also reduce the risk of SIDS, the most crucial step is placing the infant on their back for sleep.

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