ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A client has a new diagnosis of COPD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Breathe rapidly through your mouth when using the incentive spirometer.
- B. Use pursed-lip breathing during periods of dyspnea.
- C. Avoid drinking fluids during meals.
- D. Use diaphragmatic breathing during periods of dyspnea.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a beneficial technique for clients with COPD as it helps control shortness of breath and improves oxygenation. This technique involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling through pursed lips, which helps keep airways open. Option A is incorrect as breathing rapidly through the mouth when using the incentive spirometer can lead to hyperventilation. Option C is incorrect because it is important for clients with COPD to stay hydrated by drinking fluids between meals, but not during meals which can cause bloating and discomfort. Option D is incorrect as diaphragmatic breathing, though beneficial, is not the preferred technique for managing dyspnea in COPD; pursed-lip breathing is more effective.
2. A client is 24 hr postoperative following an abdominal aortic aneurysm resection. Which of the following findings is a priority to report?
- A. Serosanguineous drainage on dressing
- B. Abdominal distention
- C. Absent bowel sounds
- D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Urine output less than 30 mL/hr is indicative of decreased kidney function, potentially due to inadequate perfusion or other complications post-aneurysm resection. This finding requires immediate reporting to prevent further complications such as acute kidney injury. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing, abdominal distention, and absent bowel sounds are also important postoperative assessments but are not as critical as impaired kidney function in this scenario.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
- A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
- B. Increased urinary output.
- C. Blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg.
- D. Decreased peripheral edema.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours is an indication that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid retention. This medication works by promoting diuresis, resulting in increased urine output, which could lead to weight loss. While increased urinary output (choice B) is a common effect of furosemide, weight loss is a more specific indicator of its effectiveness. Blood pressure (choice C) and decreased peripheral edema (choice D) can be influenced by various factors and are not direct indicators of furosemide's effectiveness in reducing fluid retention.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Withhold all medications until after dialysis.
- B. Rehydrate with dextrose 5% in water for orthostatic hypotension.
- C. Check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis.
- D. Give an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client receiving hemodialysis is to check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis. This is crucial to detect any bleeding complications and ensure prompt intervention if necessary. Withholding all medications until after dialysis (Choice A) is not appropriate as some medications may need to be administered during dialysis. Rehydrating with dextrose 5% in water for orthostatic hypotension (Choice B) is not directly related to the immediate post-dialysis care. Giving an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis (Choice D) is not recommended as timing of medication administration should be based on the specific antibiotic and its pharmacokinetics.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Urine output of 80 mL/hr
- B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg
- C. Serum creatinine 2.8 mg/dL
- D. Heart rate of 72/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 2.8 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Elevated serum creatinine levels are indicative of decreased kidney function and potential progression of chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not signify immediate concerns related to kidney disease. Urine output of 80 mL/hr is appropriate, a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is considered prehypertensive but not acutely concerning, and a heart rate of 72/min falls within the normal range.
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