ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is immediately postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following positions should the nurse maintain for the client?
- A. Supine with legs extended
- B. Semi-Fowler's position with legs bent
- C. Lateral position with an abduction pillow between the legs
- D. Prone with legs elevated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct position for a client immediately postoperative following a hip arthroplasty is the lateral position with an abduction pillow between the legs. This position helps prevent dislocation of the hip prosthesis and maintains proper alignment of the hip joint. Supine position with legs extended (Choice A) may put stress on the hip joint, Semi-Fowler's position with legs bent (Choice B) may not provide adequate support and alignment, and prone position with legs elevated (Choice D) is not recommended after hip arthroplasty as it can compromise the surgical site and increase the risk of complications.
2. A healthcare professional is documenting the recent vital signs for several clients on an acute medical ward of a hospital. Which hospital client with a noninfectious diagnosis would be most likely to have a fever?
- A. A 71-year-old female with limited mobility, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and vascular dementia
- B. A 33-year-old female with a postoperative deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism
- C. A 51-year-old obese male with hepatic encephalopathy secondary to alcohol abuse
- D. A 71-year-old male with congestive heart failure and peripheral edema
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pulmonary emboli can produce fever even without infection. This is known as a noninfectious cause of fever. Choices A, C, and D do not typically present with fever as a prominent symptom. Limited mobility, COPD, vascular dementia, hepatic encephalopathy, alcohol abuse, congestive heart failure, and peripheral edema are not directly associated with causing fever in the absence of infection, unlike pulmonary embolism.
3. The nurse is teaching a child experiencing severe edema associated with minimal change nephrotic syndrome about his diet. The nurse should discuss what dietary need?
- A. Consuming a regular diet
- B. Increasing protein
- C. Restricting fluids
- D. Decreasing calories
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Fluid restriction is often necessary to manage severe edema associated with MCNS. Increasing protein is not typically recommended due to the risk of exacerbating proteinuria, and calorie reduction is not generally needed.
4. What is the primary use of lithium?
- A. Lower blood glucose
- B. Slow the heart rate
- C. Stabilize mood
- D. Heal ulcers
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stabilize mood. Lithium is primarily used to stabilize mood, especially in conditions like bipolar disorder. It helps in reducing the frequency and severity of manic episodes, making it an essential medication for mood stabilization. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as lithium is not used to lower blood glucose, slow the heart rate, or heal ulcers.
5. A client has anemia and a new prescription for ferrous sulfate liquid. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach to decrease gastrointestinal irritation.
- B. Take the medication with orange juice to enhance absorption.
- C. Take the medication with milk.
- D. Rinse the mouth before taking the iron.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Taking ferrous sulfate with orange juice can help increase the absorption of iron. Orange juice contains vitamin C, which aids in the absorption of iron from the medication. This combination can enhance the effectiveness of the iron supplement for a client with anemia. Option A is incorrect because taking iron on an empty stomach can cause gastrointestinal upset. Option C is incorrect because calcium in milk can inhibit iron absorption. Option D is irrelevant to enhancing iron absorption.
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