a nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia which of the following actions should the nurse include
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ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing the client with a stool softener is essential to prevent straining during bowel movements, which could result in bleeding for clients with thrombocytopenia. Encouraging the client to floss daily (choice A) is unrelated to the management of thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers (choice B) is more relevant for clients with a compromised immune system. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems to prevent foodborne illnesses, but it is not directly related to thrombocytopenia.

2. What is the priority nursing action for a patient with confusion post-surgery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer oxygen. Post-surgery, confusion in a patient could be due to hypoxia, a condition where the body is deprived of an adequate oxygen supply. Administering oxygen helps address hypoxia promptly, improving oxygen levels in the body and potentially resolving the confusion. Repositioning the patient, checking oxygen saturation, and performing a neurological exam may be important interventions but addressing hypoxia with oxygen administration takes precedence as the priority action.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pallor. Pallor, which is paleness of the skin, is a common sign of anemia due to a decreased number of red blood cells or hemoglobin levels. This results in reduced oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to the paleness of the skin. Choice A, increased appetite, is not typically associated with anemia. Choice C, tachycardia (increased heart rate), can be present in anemia as the body compensates for decreased oxygenation. Choice D, hypertension (high blood pressure), is not a common finding in anemia; instead, low blood pressure may be observed due to decreased blood volume.

4. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Choice A, avoiding prolonged exposure to sunlight, is not directly related to furosemide use. Choice B, taking the medication with a meal, is not a specific requirement for furosemide administration. Choice D, limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day, is not the correct advice as furosemide is a diuretic that often requires increased fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Canned soup. Canned soups are typically high in sodium, which can lead to fluid retention in clients with chronic kidney disease. Sodium restriction is crucial in managing this condition. Choice A, baked chicken, is a lean protein source that is generally recommended for individuals with kidney disease. Bananas (Choice B) are high in potassium, so clients with kidney disease may need to limit their intake depending on their individual treatment plan. Lean cuts of beef (Choice C) can be a good source of protein and iron for clients with kidney disease as long as portion sizes are controlled to manage protein intake.

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