a nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for a bowel training program following a spinal cord injury which of the following action a nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for a bowel training program following a spinal cord injury which of the following action
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for a bowel-training program following a spinal cord injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering a rectal suppository 30 minutes before scheduled defecation times is essential in a bowel-training program following a spinal cord injury. The suppository helps stimulate bowel movements and aids in establishing a regular bowel routine. Encouraging a maximum fluid intake of 1,500 ml per day (Choice A) might be beneficial for bowel function, but it is not specific to the bowel-training program. Increasing the intake of refined grains in the diet (Choice B) is not necessary and could potentially lead to constipation rather than improving bowel movements. Providing a cold drink prior to defecation (Choice C) may not directly contribute to the effectiveness of the bowel-training program compared to the use of a rectal suppository.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH), the nurse should expect hyponatremia. SIADH leads to excess water retention, diluting the sodium levels in the blood, resulting in low serum sodium levels. Choice A, increased urine output, is incorrect as SIADH causes water retention, leading to decreased urine output. Choice B, increased serum sodium, is incorrect because SIADH causes a dilutional effect due to water retention, resulting in decreased serum sodium levels. Choice D, hypercalcemia, is unrelated to SIADH and not a typical finding.

3. Your patient with peritonitis is NPO and complaining of thirst. What is your priority?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Provide frequent mouth care. In a patient with peritonitis who is NPO and thirsty, the priority is to maintain oral hygiene and provide comfort by moistening the mouth with frequent mouth care. This helps alleviate the sensation of thirst and maintains oral health. Increasing the IV infusion rate (choice A) may not address the patient's discomfort directly related to thirst. Using diversion activities (choice B) is not as critical as addressing the patient's immediate need for oral care. Giving ice chips every 15 minutes (choice D) is not recommended for a patient with peritonitis who is NPO, as it can lead to complications or worsen the condition.

4. In managing cystic fibrosis, which nutrition therapy is crucial for patients with pancreatic insufficiency?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cystic fibrosis patients with pancreatic insufficiency, pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy is vital for aiding digestion. This therapy helps compensate for the decreased production of digestive enzymes by the pancreas, enabling the proper breakdown and absorption of nutrients. Options A, B, and C are not the primary focus of nutrition therapy for cystic fibrosis patients with pancreatic insufficiency.

5. Which test uses sound waves to create images of the heart, allowing doctors to assess its structure and function?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Echocardiogram. An echocardiogram is a test that uses sound waves to create images of the heart, enabling doctors to assess its structure and function. This imaging technique is particularly useful in detecting abnormalities such as valve disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because MRI, CT scans, and X-rays use different imaging technologies that do not rely on sound waves to visualize the heart.

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