a nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent iv bolus available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 ml of dextrose 5 in water d5w to infuse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent IV bolus. Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), you can use the formula: (Volume in mL x Drop factor) / Time in minutes = Flow rate in gtt/min. In this case, it would be (100 mL x 10 gtt/mL) / 45 min = 22 gtt/min. Therefore, the healthcare professional should adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver 22 gtt/min. Choice B, 24 gtt/min, is incorrect as it results from a miscalculation. Choices C and D, 20 gtt/min and 18 gtt/min respectively, are also incorrect calculations based on the given parameters.

2. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. It is crucial for the client to take this medication 15-30 minutes before each meal to synchronize the peak insulin availability with mealtime glucose elevation, maximizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medicine with meals may not optimize its action. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medicine before going to bed is not in line with its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medicine upon waking up does not coincide with mealtime glucose elevation.

3. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for an antihypertensive medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse effect of antihypertensive medications. The client should move slowly to a sitting or standing position and should be taught to sit or lie down if lightheadedness or dizziness occurs. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Limiting potassium intake is usually not necessary with antihypertensive medications. Checking blood pressure every 8 hours is not a standard recommendation unless specified by a healthcare provider. Increasing medication dosage due to tachycardia is not a typical practice for antihypertensive medications.

4. A client asks a nurse about Feverfew. Which response should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is B: 'It can decrease the frequency of migraine headaches.' Feverfew is known for reducing the frequency of migraine headaches, but it has not been proven to relieve an existing migraine headache. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Feverfew is not used to treat skin infections, lessen nasal congestion in the common cold, or relieve nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.

5. What is the antidote for Heparin?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protamine sulfate. Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clotting. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for Heparin as it binds to heparin, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. Vitamin K is not the antidote for Heparin; it is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, another anticoagulant. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist for opioids, and Toradol is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for pain relief. Therefore, the correct antidote for Heparin is Protamine sulfate.

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