Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client for this and instruct them to report it to the healthcare provider if it occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as weight gain, diarrhea, and nausea are not commonly associated adverse effects of Enalapril.

2. What classification of drug is Penicillin?

• A. Antiarrhythmic
• B. Anticonvulsant
• C. Antibacterial
• D. Mood stabilizer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Penicillin is classified as an antibacterial drug, specifically used to treat bacterial infections. It works by inhibiting the growth of bacteria, making it an effective treatment for various bacterial infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as Penicillin does not belong to these drug classifications. Penicillin does not have any direct effect on heart rhythm (antiarrhythmic), does not treat seizures (anticonvulsant), and is not used to stabilize mood (mood stabilizer).

3. During the repair of a skin laceration, a client receives a local anesthetic of Lidocaine. For which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse monitor the client?

• A. Seizures
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Seizures are a potential adverse reaction following the administration of local anesthetics like Lidocaine. This adverse effect is important to monitor as it can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. It is crucial for the nurse to be vigilant in recognizing any signs of seizure activity to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

4. A healthcare professional in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings is indicative of this condition?

• A. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision
• B. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision
• C. Severe pain around the eyes
• D. Intraocular pressure 12 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a classic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is often associated with other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent permanent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more indicative of conditions like macular degeneration. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12 mm Hg is within the normal range and is not typical of angle-closure glaucoma.

5. A client has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Avoid taking aspirin while on this medication.
• C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• D. Take this medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Clopidogrel, an antiplatelet medication, the nurse should instruct them to avoid taking aspirin or other NSAIDs. This is because both medications can increase the risk of bleeding when taken together, potentially leading to serious health complications. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to follow this instruction to ensure their safety and well-being while on Clopidogrel. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Clopidogrel with food, avoiding foods high in potassium, or taking the medication at bedtime are not specific instructions related to the safe use of Clopidogrel and do not address the potential interaction with aspirin, which is essential for the client's well-being.

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