Nursing Elites

1. What is the therapeutic use of Phenytoin?

• A. Replacement in hypothyroidism to restore normal hormonal balance
• B. Diminished accumulation of acid in the gastric lumen with lessened gastroesophageal reflux
• C. Diminished seizure activity, termination of ventricular arrhythmias
• D. Prevention of thrombus formation, prevention of extension of existing thrombi

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Phenytoin is primarily used to diminish seizure activity and is effective in terminating ventricular arrhythmias. It works by stabilizing neuronal membranes, reducing repetitive neuronal firing, and limiting the spread of seizure activity in the brain. While phenytoin does not have a direct role in preventing thrombus formation or extending existing thrombi, it is crucial in managing seizures and certain arrhythmias.

2. A client has a new prescription for Maraviroc to treat HIV infection. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions?

• A. Liver failure
• B. Kidney failure
• C. Pancreatitis
• D. Severe allergic reactions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Severe allergic reactions. Maraviroc, used to treat HIV infection, can lead to severe allergic reactions, including hepatotoxicity. While liver failure is a potential adverse effect, it is often preceded by hepatotoxicity manifestations like jaundice or right upper quadrant pain. Kidney failure and pancreatitis are not typically associated with Maraviroc use. Therefore, monitoring for signs of severe allergic reactions and hepatotoxicity is crucial for early detection and intervention.

3. A client has been prescribed Nitroglycerin patches for angina. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

• A. Apply the patch to a different site each time.
• B. Remove the patch for 12 hours each day.
• C. Apply the patch at the same time every day.
• D. Cut the patch in half if your blood pressure is well controlled.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Remove the patch for 12 hours each day.' Nitroglycerin patches should be removed for 12 hours each day to prevent the development of tolerance. This nitrate-free interval ensures the medication remains effective in managing angina. Choice A is incorrect because applying the patch to a different site each time is not necessary; it is more important to ensure a nitrate-free interval. Choice C is incorrect because while consistency in timing is good for medication adherence, the crucial aspect for Nitroglycerin patches is the nitrate-free interval. Choice D is incorrect because cutting the patch in half based on blood pressure control is not a recommended practice and could alter the medication's efficacy.

4. A client is prescribed Propranolol for dysrhythmia. Which action should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Hold Propranolol if the client's apical pulse is greater than 100/min.
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure after administering Propranolol.
• C. Assist the client when transitioning to a sitting or standing position after taking Propranolol.
• D. Monitor the client's potassium levels for signs of Propranolol toxicity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should plan to take when administering Propranolol to a client with dysrhythmia is to assist the client when transitioning to a sitting or standing position. Propranolol can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to dizziness during position changes, so it is essential to help the client move slowly to prevent falls or injuries. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because holding Propranolol based on pulse rate, monitoring blood pressure after administration, and monitoring potassium levels are not directly related to the common side effect of orthostatic hypotension associated with Propranolol.

5. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating large amounts of green leafy vegetables.
• B. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
• C. I will increase my intake of foods high in potassium.
• D. I will report any signs of bleeding to my provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Warfarin interacts with vitamin K, not potassium. Therefore, the client needs to be cautious with foods high in vitamin K, such as green leafy vegetables, rather than foods high in potassium. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements regarding Warfarin therapy and do not indicate a need for further teaching.

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