Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a diuretic that commonly causes hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to its effect on sodium and water excretion. The nurse must closely monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia, such as weakness, confusion, and muscle cramps, and promptly intervene to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Furosemide is not associated with hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypercalcemia. Understanding the medication's mechanism of action helps prioritize monitoring for potential adverse effects.

2. A client has been prescribed Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. Take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
• C. Monitor your heart rate daily before taking the medication.
• D. Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching for a client prescribed Warfarin is to 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Foods high in vitamin K can decrease the effectiveness of Warfarin by interfering with its anticoagulant effects, potentially leading to blood clotting issues. It is crucial for clients on Warfarin therapy to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-containing foods to ensure the stability of the medication's effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Warfarin with food, monitoring heart rate daily, or limiting fluid intake are not directly related to optimizing the effectiveness of Warfarin therapy.

3. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?

• A. Intestinal ileus
• B. Neutropenia
• C. Delirium
• D. Hyperthermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV nitroprusside is administered at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, resulting in mental status changes such as delirium. Monitoring thiocyanate levels during therapy is crucial to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL to prevent this adverse reaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because nitroprusside does not typically cause intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia as adverse reactions.

4. While collecting data from a client taking Gemfibrozil, a nurse should identify which of the following assessment findings as an adverse reaction to the medication?

• A. Mental status changes
• B. Tremor
• C. Jaundice
• D. Pneumonia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Jaundice is an adverse reaction that the nurse should identify when assessing a client taking Gemfibrozil. It is associated with liver impairment, which can be a side effect of this medication. Mental status changes and tremors are not typically associated with Gemfibrozil use. Pneumonia is not a common adverse reaction to this medication, and its occurrence is not directly linked to Gemfibrozil use.

5. A drug ending in the suffix (azole) is considered a ______.

• A. H
• B. ACE inhibitor
• C. Antifungal
• D. Beta agonist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Drugs ending in the suffix -azole are commonly associated with antifungal medications. Examples include fluconazole, ketoconazole, and itraconazole. These medications are used to treat fungal infections by inhibiting the growth of fungi. Therefore, the correct answer is option C, 'Antifungal'. Options A, B, and D do not accurately describe drugs ending in -azole.

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