Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following immunizations may the healthcare professional administer safely to this client?

• A. Varicella vaccine
• B. Rubella vaccine
• C. Inactivated influenza vaccine
• D. Measles vaccine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During pregnancy, it is safe for women to receive the inactivated influenza vaccine, which is recommended by healthcare providers to protect pregnant individuals from influenza. Vaccination with inactivated influenza vaccine during pregnancy not only provides protection to the pregnant individual but also confers passive immunity to the newborn during the vulnerable early months of life. The Varicella, Rubella, and Measles vaccines are live vaccines and are contraindicated during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of transmission of the live virus to the fetus, which could potentially cause harm.

2. When teaching parents of a school-age child about transdermal Methylphenidate, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Apply one patch once per day.
• B. Leave the patch on for 9 hours.
• C. Apply the patch to the child's waistline.
• D. Use the opened tray within 6 months.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering transdermal Methylphenidate, the patch should be left on for 9 hours per day to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. This duration helps maintain a consistent level of the drug in the child's system. Incorrect options: A) Applying one patch once per day is not the correct dosing regimen for transdermal Methylphenidate. C) The patch should not be applied to the child's waistline as it is recommended to apply it to a clean, dry area. D) Using the opened tray within 6 months is not directly related to the administration of transdermal Methylphenidate.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of digoxin?

• A. Constipation
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Blurred vision is a common adverse effect of digoxin and can indicate toxicity. Monitoring for visual changes is essential to prevent serious complications in clients taking digoxin.

4. When assessing a client taking Gemfibrozil, which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse reaction to the medication?

• A. Mental status changes
• B. Tremor
• C. Jaundice
• D. Pneumonia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Jaundice is an adverse reaction that can occur in clients taking Gemfibrozil due to the potential development of liver impairment. Other symptoms of liver impairment may include anorexia and upper abdominal discomfort. Monitoring for signs of jaundice is crucial to detect and manage adverse effects of the medication promptly. Mental status changes (choice A) are not commonly associated with Gemfibrozil use. Tremor (choice B) is not a typical adverse reaction of Gemfibrozil. Pneumonia (choice D) is not directly linked to Gemfibrozil use but can be a complication in some cases.

5. A client in an outpatient facility is taking Acarbose for type 2 Diabetes Mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to monitor?

• A. WBC
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Platelet count
• D. Liver function test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Liver function test. Acarbose, used for type 2 Diabetes Mellitus, can lead to liver toxicity with long-term use. Monitoring liver function tests periodically is crucial to detect any signs of liver dysfunction early and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as Acarbose does not directly affect WBC, serum potassium, or platelet count levels.

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