ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following immunizations may the healthcare professional administer safely to this client?
- A. Varicella vaccine
- B. Rubella vaccine
- C. Inactivated influenza vaccine
- D. Measles vaccine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During pregnancy, it is safe for women to receive the inactivated influenza vaccine, which is recommended by healthcare providers to protect pregnant individuals from influenza. Vaccination with inactivated influenza vaccine during pregnancy not only provides protection to the pregnant individual but also confers passive immunity to the newborn during the vulnerable early months of life. The Varicella, Rubella, and Measles vaccines are live vaccines and are contraindicated during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of transmission of the live virus to the fetus, which could potentially cause harm.
2. When administering the drug lithium, what is one important side effect to watch for?
- A. Anaphylaxis
- B. Seizures
- C. Angioedema
- D. Pulmonary Edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When administering lithium, it is crucial to watch for the side effect of angioedema. Angioedema is a potential adverse reaction associated with lithium therapy, characterized by rapid swelling beneath the skin, often around the eyes and lips. Monitoring for this side effect is essential to promptly address and manage any signs of angioedema that may occur during lithium treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because anaphylaxis, seizures, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated side effects of lithium administration.
3. In an acute mental health facility, a patient experiencing opioid withdrawal has a new prescription for Clonidine. What action should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Administer the Clonidine as prescribed.
- B. Provide ice chips to the patient.
- C. Educate the patient on Clonidine's effects.
- D. Obtain baseline vital signs.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain baseline vital signs. This is essential for establishing a baseline assessment, especially for a patient undergoing opioid withdrawal and starting a new medication like Clonidine. Monitoring vital signs is crucial for evaluating the patient's response to treatment and detecting any potential complications early on. Administering the medication, providing ice chips, and educating the patient on Clonidine's effects are important tasks but obtaining baseline vital signs takes precedence to ensure the patient's safety and proper management.
4. A client is prescribed Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Store the medication in a cool, dry place.
- C. Swallow the tablets whole.
- D. Take one tablet every 5 minutes up to three doses for chest pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a chest pain episode, the client should take one nitroglycerin tablet sublingually every 5 minutes up to a total of three doses. If chest pain persists after three doses, emergency medical attention should be sought. Nitroglycerin should not be swallowed but allowed to dissolve under the tongue for rapid absorption. Storing the medication in a cool, dry place helps maintain its effectiveness.
5. A client has a new prescription for Captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Captopril should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. The client should be instructed to take it 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals to optimize its effectiveness. Taking it with food can reduce its absorption and efficacy.
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