Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a young adult client with a serum calcium level of 8.8 mg/dL. Which of the following medications should the professional anticipate administering to this client?

• A. Calcitonin-salmon
• B. Calcium carbonate
• C. Zoledronic acid
• D. Ibandronate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's serum calcium level is below the expected reference range, indicating hypocalcemia. Calcium carbonate, an oral form of calcium, is used to increase serum calcium levels to the expected range in cases of hypocalcemia. It helps correct the deficiency by supplementing calcium in the body.

2. A client presents in the Emergency Department with a suspected MI. Which medication should NOT be given as soon as possible?

• A. Clopidogrel (Plavix)
• B. Morphine
• C. Aspirin (ASA)
• D. Metoprolol (Lopressor)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the setting of a suspected myocardial infarction (MI), the priority medications to administer as soon as possible include aspirin (ASA) and possibly morphine to manage pain and anxiety. Clopidogrel (Plavix) is not typically administered immediately in the emergency setting for MI management. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is indicated after aspirin administration and stabilization of the patient. Therefore, in this scenario, clopidogrel should NOT be given as a first-line medication for a suspected MI.

3. When teaching a client with a new prescription for furosemide, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication in the morning.
• B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for furosemide, a diuretic, is to take it in the morning to prevent nocturia. Taking it in the morning helps to prevent frequent urination during the night, allowing the client to have uninterrupted sleep. This timing also coincides with the body's natural diuretic response, which is typically more active during the day. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding foods high in potassium, taking it on an empty stomach, or limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

4. A client is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
• B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs
• C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to potassium retention. The nurse should notify the provider and withhold the medication to prevent further elevation of potassium levels, which can result in serious cardiac complications. The other findings (Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L, Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs, and Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg) are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy.

5. A client is prescribed Omeprazole for managing heartburn. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. This medication decreases the production of gastric acid.
• C. Take this medication 2 hours after eating.
• D. This medication can cause hyperkalemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should educate the client that Omeprazole works by reducing the production of gastric acid through inhibiting the enzyme responsible for its production. This action helps in managing heartburn and related symptoms effectively. Choice A is incorrect because Omeprazole is usually taken before eating. Choice C is incorrect as Omeprazole is typically taken before a meal. Choice D is unrelated to Omeprazole, as it is not associated with causing hyperkalemia.

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