a nurse is admitting a client to an acute care facility for a total hip arthroplasty the client takes hydrocortisone for addisons disease which of th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A client with Addison's disease is being admitted for a total hip arthroplasty. The client takes hydrocortisone for Addison's disease. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority in this situation is to administer a supplemental dose of hydrocortisone. Clients with Addison's disease taking hydrocortisone are at risk of acute adrenal insufficiency during times of stress such as surgery. Administering supplemental doses of hydrocortisone helps prevent acute adrenal insufficiency (adrenal crisis) in these situations, making it the priority action to ensure the client's safety. Instructing the client about coughing and deep breathing is important postoperatively but not the priority at this time. Collecting additional information about the client's history of Addison's disease is important but not the priority action before surgery. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority in this situation.

2. A client has a new prescription for Tetracycline. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction to include for a client prescribed Tetracycline is to 'Avoid prolonged sun exposure.' Tetracycline can cause photosensitivity, making the client more sensitive to the sun's rays. This can lead to adverse reactions like sunburn or skin rashes. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to minimize sun exposure and wear protective clothing when outdoors. Choice A is incorrect because taking Tetracycline with milk can reduce its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take Tetracycline at bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as Tetracycline does not typically cause dark yellow urine.

3. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The client should be monitored for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia is characterized by elevated levels of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous and lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia is crucial when a client is taking spironolactone. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone is not known to cause hyponatremia, hypokalemia, or hypercalcemia as adverse effects.

4. A client has a prescription for Acyclovir. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Acyclovir is to increase fluid intake during therapy. Acyclovir can cause nephrotoxicity, potentially leading to kidney damage. Increasing fluid intake helps prevent this adverse effect by promoting adequate renal function and drug elimination. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Acyclovir is usually prescribed for short-term use, there is no need to avoid sexual contact while on the medication, and nausea is not a common side effect that necessitates immediate consultation with a healthcare provider.

5. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.

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