a nurse is admitting a client to an acute care facility for a total hip arthroplasty the client takes hydrocortisone for addisons disease which of th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A client with Addison's disease is being admitted for a total hip arthroplasty. The client takes hydrocortisone for Addison's disease. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority in this situation is to administer a supplemental dose of hydrocortisone. Clients with Addison's disease taking hydrocortisone are at risk of acute adrenal insufficiency during times of stress such as surgery. Administering supplemental doses of hydrocortisone helps prevent acute adrenal insufficiency (adrenal crisis) in these situations, making it the priority action to ensure the client's safety. Instructing the client about coughing and deep breathing is important postoperatively but not the priority at this time. Collecting additional information about the client's history of Addison's disease is important but not the priority action before surgery. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority in this situation.

2. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client who is starting therapy with paclitaxel. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neutropenia. Paclitaxel commonly causes neutropenia due to bone marrow suppression. It is essential for clients receiving this medication to monitor for signs of neutropenia, such as fever, chills, and increased susceptibility to infections, as it can increase the risk of serious complications.

3. Which of the following is not a side effect of Sympathoplegics (Clonidine)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clonidine, a Sympathoplegic, typically causes hypotension rather than hypertension. The other side effects associated with Clonidine include dry oral cavity, lethargic behavior, and difficulty breathing, making them incorrect choices in this context.

4. A client who takes Chlorpromazine for the treatment of Schizophrenia is due for a follow-up assessment. The nurse should expect the greatest improvement in which of the following manifestations? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client takes a conventional antipsychotic medication like chlorpromazine, the greatest improvement is typically seen in positive symptoms such as disorganized speech. These medications are more effective in managing positive symptoms like disorganized speech rather than negative symptoms like impaired social interactions or hallucinations. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate improvement in disorganized speech as a positive response to chlorpromazine treatment.

5. When teaching a client about a new prescription for Celecoxib, which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should educate the client that taking Celecoxib increases the risk of a myocardial infarction due to its suppression of vasodilation. Celecoxib belongs to the class of NSAIDs known to have cardiovascular risks, including an increased risk of heart attacks. Choice B is incorrect because Celecoxib does not decrease the risk of stroke. Choice C is incorrect because Celecoxib selectively inhibits COX-2 rather than COX-1. Choice D is incorrect because Celecoxib does not increase platelet aggregation; in fact, it inhibits platelet aggregation.

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