ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test
1. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Monitor your pulse before taking the medication.
- C. Expect to have an increased appetite.
- D. Discontinue the medication if you feel nauseated.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When educating a client about Digoxin, it is crucial to instruct them to monitor their pulse before taking the medication. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia, so monitoring the pulse is essential to ensure it is not below 60 beats per minute before taking each dose. If the pulse is low, the client should hold the dose and seek guidance from their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Digoxin with food may affect its absorption, Digoxin is not known to increase appetite, and feeling nauseated does not necessarily indicate the need to discontinue the medication.
2. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should be monitored by the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. PT
- B. aPTT
- C. INR
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. It should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the therapeutic range of heparin is achieved to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Choice A (PT) is incorrect as it is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C (INR) is also incorrect as it is primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D (Platelet count) is not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
3. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid salt substitutes.
- B. Take this medication at bedtime.
- C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Take this medication with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Lisinopril is to avoid salt substitutes. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia, hence the importance of avoiding salt substitutes that may contain potassium. Instructing the client to avoid salt substitutes helps prevent potential adverse effects of increased potassium levels.
4. A client has a new prescription for methotrexate to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis. The nurse should expect to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Insomnia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Bone marrow suppression
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is bone marrow suppression (Choice C). Methotrexate can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in adverse effects such as anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Monitoring for signs of decreased blood cell counts is essential to prevent complications and adjust treatment as needed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insomnia, hypertension, and constipation are not typically associated with methotrexate use in the treatment of Rheumatoid Arthritis.
5. When assessing a client with chronic Neutropenia receiving Filgrastim, what action should the nurse take to evaluate for an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Assess for bone pain.
- B. Assess for right lower quadrant pain.
- C. Auscultate for crackles in the bases of the lungs.
- D. Auscultate the chest to listen for a heart murmur.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action when assessing a client receiving Filgrastim for chronic Neutropenia is to assess for bone pain. Bone pain is a known dose-related adverse effect of Filgrastim. Acetaminophen or opioid analgesics can be used to manage bone pain if necessary. Assessing for other types of pain, lung crackles, or heart murmurs would not be specific to the adverse effects of Filgrastim.
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