ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of hypercholesterolemia. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?
- A. Increase intake of red meat
- B. Consume foods high in saturated fats
- C. Choose foods low in trans fats
- D. Limit intake of vegetables and fruits
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Choose foods low in trans fats.' Trans fats are known to increase cholesterol levels, so avoiding foods high in trans fats is essential in managing hypercholesterolemia. Option A, increasing intake of red meat, and option B, consuming foods high in saturated fats, can worsen cholesterol levels as they are sources of unhealthy fats. Option D, limiting intake of vegetables and fruits, is incorrect as they are part of a heart-healthy diet and should be encouraged for individuals with hypercholesterolemia.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has depression and reports taking St. John's wort along with citalopram. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following conditions as a result of an interaction between these substances?
- A. Serotonin syndrome
- B. Tardive dyskinesia
- C. Pseudo-parkinsonism
- D. Acute dystonia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin syndrome. When a client takes St. John's wort, a herbal supplement, along with citalopram, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), there is a risk of developing serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by symptoms such as confusion, agitation, fever, sweating, shivering, tremors, muscle rigidity, and in severe cases, seizures and coma. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for these symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tardive dyskinesia is associated with long-term use of antipsychotic medications, pseudo-parkinsonism is a side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, and acute dystonia is a side effect of antipsychotic medications characterized by sustained muscle contractions.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?
- A. Hyperlipidemia.
- B. COPD.
- C. Seizure disorder.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving heparin to treat deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. aPTT of 38 seconds
- B. Hemoglobin of 15 g/dL
- C. Platelet count of 80,000/mm3
- D. INR of 1.0
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A platelet count of 80,000/mm3 is below the normal range and should be reported to the provider due to the risk of bleeding. Heparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, leading to a decrease in platelet count and an increased risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 38 seconds, hemoglobin of 15 g/dL, and an INR of 1.0 are within normal ranges and not directly concerning in this scenario. Platelet count is crucial to monitor in clients receiving heparin therapy to ensure adequate clotting function and prevent bleeding complications.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Place the client in a private room with negative airflow.
- B. Wear an N95 respirator when caring for the client.
- C. Place the client in a positive pressure room.
- D. Maintain the client on droplet precautions.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a private room with negative airflow. This is crucial for preventing the spread of tuberculosis (TB) infection. Option B, wearing an N95 respirator when caring for the client, is important for staff protection but does not address the need for isolation precautions. Option C, placing the client in a positive pressure room, is incorrect as TB clients should be in negative pressure rooms to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option D, maintaining the client on droplet precautions, is not sufficient for TB, which requires airborne precautions.
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