a nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of hypercholesterolemia which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of hypercholesterolemia. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Choose foods low in trans fats.' Trans fats are known to increase cholesterol levels, so avoiding foods high in trans fats is essential in managing hypercholesterolemia. Option A, increasing intake of red meat, and option B, consuming foods high in saturated fats, can worsen cholesterol levels as they are sources of unhealthy fats. Option D, limiting intake of vegetables and fruits, is incorrect as they are part of a heart-healthy diet and should be encouraged for individuals with hypercholesterolemia.

2. A client with heart failure is receiving a continuous IV infusion of milrinone. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Measuring the client's intake and output every 2 hours is essential when caring for a client receiving a continuous IV infusion of milrinone. Milrinone is a medication that affects fluid balance, and monitoring intake and output helps assess the client's response to the medication. Continuous monitoring of blood pressure may not be necessary unless there is a specific indication. While weighing the client daily is important for overall assessment, measuring intake and output more frequently provides more real-time data for fluid balance evaluation. Monitoring the infusion site is crucial for detecting infiltration but is not directly related to managing fluid balance in this situation.

3. Which of the following is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion in the body, causing hypokalemia. This is a significant concern as low potassium levels can result in cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is unlikely to occur as a result of furosemide use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not typically linked to furosemide use.

4. How should signs of infection in a post-surgical patient be assessed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the surgical site is crucial in identifying early signs of infection post-surgery. Changes such as redness, swelling, warmth, or drainage may indicate an infection developing. While monitoring vital signs and fever are important in infection assessment, they are general indicators and may not show localized signs at the surgical site. Checking for abnormal breath sounds is more relevant when assessing respiratory issues rather than infection at the surgical site.

5. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

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