ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of hypercholesterolemia. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?
- A. Increase intake of red meat
- B. Consume foods high in saturated fats
- C. Choose foods low in trans fats
- D. Limit intake of vegetables and fruits
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Choose foods low in trans fats.' Trans fats are known to increase cholesterol levels, so avoiding foods high in trans fats is essential in managing hypercholesterolemia. Option A, increasing intake of red meat, and option B, consuming foods high in saturated fats, can worsen cholesterol levels as they are sources of unhealthy fats. Option D, limiting intake of vegetables and fruits, is incorrect as they are part of a heart-healthy diet and should be encouraged for individuals with hypercholesterolemia.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should the nurse include in the care plan?
- A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
- B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
- C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
- D. Avoid serving raw vegetables.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the care plan for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to increased bleeding tendencies. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation and straining during bowel movements, reducing the risk of bleeding. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is important for oral hygiene but is not directly related to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to preventing infections in immunocompromised clients. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems but is not specifically targeted at managing thrombocytopenia.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease and is receiving hemodialysis. What dietary instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take magnesium hydroxide for indigestion.
- B. Drink at least 3L of fluid daily.
- C. Eat 1g/kg of protein per day.
- D. Consume foods high in potassium.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a client with chronic kidney disease receiving hemodialysis, consuming 1g/kg of protein per day is important. This amount helps manage the condition without overburdening the kidneys. Choice A is incorrect because magnesium hydroxide is not specifically recommended for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice B is not accurate as fluid intake needs to be individualized based on the client's condition and dialysis status. Choice D is incorrect because foods high in potassium should generally be limited for individuals with kidney disease undergoing hemodialysis to prevent hyperkalemia.
4. A client in her second trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about managing nausea and vomiting. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I will drink a glass of orange juice before I get out of bed.''
- B. ''I will eat small, frequent meals throughout the day.''
- C. ''I will take 1 g of acetaminophen every 6 hours.''
- D. ''I will avoid foods that have a strong odor.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating small, frequent meals is a recommended strategy to manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This approach helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Option A is not as effective as eating small, frequent meals. Option C is unrelated to managing nausea and vomiting, and acetaminophen should only be taken as directed by a healthcare provider. Option D may help reduce nausea in some cases, but the most appropriate response related to managing symptoms is to eat small, frequent meals.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has pericarditis. Which of the following findings is the priority?
- A. Paradoxical pulse
- B. Dependent edema
- C. Pericardial friction rub
- D. Substernal chest pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with pericarditis, the priority finding is a paradoxical pulse. This is a crucial sign of cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening complication of pericarditis where fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac, causing compression of the heart. A paradoxical pulse is an exaggerated decrease in systolic blood pressure (>10 mmHg) during inspiration. Prompt recognition and intervention are essential to prevent hemodynamic instability and cardiac arrest. Dependent edema (choice B) is not typically associated with pericarditis. Pericardial friction rub (choice C) is a common finding in pericarditis but does not indicate the urgency of intervention as a paradoxical pulse. Substernal chest pain (choice D) is a classic symptom of pericarditis but is not as critical as a paradoxical pulse in the context of assessing for complications.
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