a nurse is assessing a client who has a urinary tract infection and is receiving ciprofloxacin which of the following findings should the nurse report
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a urinary tract infection and is receiving ciprofloxacin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin can cause photosensitivity, making the client more sensitive to sunlight. It is essential for the nurse to report this finding to the provider so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent skin damage. Dry mouth, headache, and urinary retention are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use and do not require immediate reporting to the provider in this scenario.

2. What is the best intervention for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best intervention for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to administer anticoagulants. Anticoagulants help prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of complications such as pulmonary embolism. Applying compression stockings can help manage symptoms but does not address the underlying issue of clot formation. Encouraging ambulation is beneficial for overall circulation but may not be sufficient to treat DVT. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important, but it is not the primary intervention for suspected DVT.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has an arteriovenous fistula. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absence of a bruit. In a client with an arteriovenous fistula, the presence of a bruit (a humming sound) is an expected finding due to the high-pressure flow of blood through the fistula. Therefore, the absence of a bruit suggests a complication, such as thrombosis or stenosis, which should be reported for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a thrill upon palpation, distended blood vessels, and a swishing sound upon auscultation are expected findings in a client with an arteriovenous fistula and do not necessarily indicate a complication.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer dopamine hydrochloride at 4 mcg/kg/min for a client weighing 80 kg. How many mL/hr should the nurse set the IV infusion to deliver?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the correct rate, you first need to convert the weight to micrograms: 4 mcg/kg/min * 80 kg = 320 mcg/min. Then, convert micrograms to milligrams: 320 mcg/min / 1000 = 0.32 mg/min. Next, calculate how many milligrams per hour: 0.32 mg/min * 60 min/hr = 19.2 mg/hr. Finally, determine the mL/hr rate by using the concentration provided: 19.2 mg/hr / 800 mg in 250 mL = 6 mL/hr. Therefore, the correct answer is 6 mL/hr. Choice B, 8 mL/hr, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation based on the weight and drug concentration. Choices C and D, 12 mL/hr and 16 mL/hr, are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation of the infusion rate for dopamine hydrochloride based on the client's weight and the medication concentration.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is the priority action before administering an enteral feeding through an NG tube. This position helps prevent aspiration by promoting proper flow and digestion of the feeding. Checking the residual volume, flushing the tube, and warming the formula are important steps but come after ensuring the client is in the correct position to minimize the risk of complications.

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