ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Peripheral edema.
- B. JVD.
- C. Crackles in the lungs.
- D. Hypotension.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: JVD. Jugular venous distention (JVD) is a common finding in right-sided heart failure due to fluid overload. This occurs because the right side of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood, leading to congestion and increased venous pressure, which is manifested as JVD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Peripheral edema (choice A) is more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure. Crackles in the lungs (choice C) are indicative of pulmonary edema, often seen in left-sided heart failure. Hypotension (choice D) is not typically seen in right-sided heart failure, as it is more commonly associated with conditions like shock or severe dehydration.
2. A client who is at 38 weeks gestation, is in active labor, and has ruptured membranes. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
- B. Apply fetal heart rate monitor
- C. Initiate fundal massage
- D. Initiate an oxytocin IV infusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Applying a fetal heart rate monitor is the priority action in this scenario as it helps assess the well-being of the fetus during labor. This monitoring is crucial to detect any signs of fetal distress and guide interventions. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice A) is not a priority at this time unless there are specific indications. Initiating fundal massage (Choice C) is not necessary in this situation as the focus should be on fetal assessment. Initiating an oxytocin IV infusion (Choice D) is not indicated until the stage of labor and the progress of labor are determined.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and is receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse notes early decelerations. Which of the following should the nurse expect?
- A. Fetal hypoxia
- B. Head compression
- C. Placenta previa
- D. Umbilical cord prolapse
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario of early decelerations noted during labor with electronic fetal monitoring, the nurse should expect head compression. Early decelerations are a normal response to fetal head compression during contractions and are not indicative of fetal distress. Choice A, fetal hypoxia, is incorrect as early decelerations are not associated with fetal oxygen deprivation. Choices C and D, placenta previa and umbilical cord prolapse, are unrelated to the scenario described and do not cause early decelerations.
4. A client sustained a major burn over 20% of the body. What intervention should the nurse implement to meet the client's nutritional needs?
- A. Keep track of calorie intake for food and beverages.
- B. Provide a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet.
- C. Schedule meals at 6-hour intervals.
- D. Provide a high-protein, high-calorie diet.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to provide a high-protein, high-calorie diet for a client with major burns. This type of diet is essential to support healing and recovery. High-protein intake is crucial as it helps in tissue repair and wound healing, while high-calorie intake is necessary to meet the increased metabolic demands of the body during the healing process. Keeping track of calorie intake (Choice A) is important but doesn't address the specific needs of a burn patient. Providing a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet (Choice B) is not suitable for burn patients as they require adequate protein for wound healing. Scheduling meals at 6-hour intervals (Choice C) may be helpful for maintaining a consistent eating schedule, but it is not as crucial as providing the correct high-protein, high-calorie diet.
5. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
- A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- B. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
- C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
- D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.
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