Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has Cushing's disease. The nurse should expect the client to have an increase in which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Serum glucose level.
• B. Serum calcium level.
• C. Lymphocyte count.
• D. Serum potassium level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's disease, there is an excess production of cortisol, leading to hyperglycemia. This results in an increase in serum glucose levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Cushing's disease does not directly affect serum calcium levels, lymphocyte count, or serum potassium levels.

2. A client is postoperative following a rhinoplasty, and a nurse is contributing to the plan of care. Which of the following interventions should the nurse recommend?

• A. Administer humidified oxygen
• B. Restrict fluids
• C. Instruct the client to avoid the Valsalva maneuver
• D. Apply heat packs to the nose

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Instructing the client to avoid the Valsalva maneuver is crucial after rhinoplasty to reduce strain and the risk of bleeding. Administering humidified oxygen may not be directly related to postoperative care for rhinoplasty. Restricting fluids is not typically necessary unless specifically indicated by the healthcare provider. Applying heat packs to the nose is contraindicated after rhinoplasty as it can increase the risk of bleeding and should be avoided.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm³
• B. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
• C. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
• D. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which may affect the client's ability to undergo surgery. The other laboratory values (white blood cell count, potassium level, and hemoglobin level) are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the client's readiness for surgery.

4. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Elevated blood pressure.
• B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
• C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 24 hr.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.

5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Canned soup
• B. Grilled chicken
• C. Peanut butter
• D. Orange juice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Grilled chicken is the correct choice as it is a low-potassium, low-sodium option suitable for clients with chronic kidney disease. Canned soup (choice A) is typically high in sodium, which is not recommended for this client population. Peanut butter (choice C) is high in potassium and phosphorus, which should be limited in individuals with kidney disease. Orange juice (choice D) is high in potassium and should be consumed in moderation by clients with chronic kidney disease.

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