a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has cushings disease the nurse should expect the client to have an increase in which of t
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has Cushing's disease. The nurse should expect the client to have an increase in which of the following laboratory values?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's disease, there is an excess production of cortisol, leading to hyperglycemia. This results in an increase in serum glucose levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Cushing's disease does not directly affect serum calcium levels, lymphocyte count, or serum potassium levels.

2. During an initial assessment of a client, a nurse notices a discrepancy between the client's current IV infusion and the information received during the shift report. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when noticing a discrepancy between the client's current IV infusion and the information received during the shift report is to compare the current infusion with the prescription in the client's medication record. This step is crucial to ensure the accuracy of the prescribed treatment and to prevent any potential harm to the client. Option A is incorrect because completing an incident report should only be done after verifying the discrepancy. Option C is incorrect as contacting the charge nurse should come after confirming the details. Option D is incorrect as submitting a written warning is not appropriate without verifying the information first.

3. A nurse has administered medications to a group of clients. For which of the following client situations should the nurse complete an incident report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because administering insulin lispro to an NPO client can lead to hypoglycemia due to the lack of food to balance the medication. This situation poses a serious risk to the client's safety and should be documented in an incident report. Choice A is not as critical as insulin administration for an NPO client. Choice C is also serious but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Choice D, administering anticoagulants without checking the INR, is important but does not require an incident report unless adverse effects occur, as it may not immediately endanger the client's life.

4. What are the complications of untreated deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Untreated DVT can lead to complications such as pulmonary embolism and stroke. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot from the leg travels to the lungs, potentially blocking blood flow and causing respiratory distress. Stroke can occur if a blood clot dislodges from the leg veins, travels to the brain, and obstructs a blood vessel, leading to brain tissue damage. Both of these complications are life-threatening if not managed promptly. The other choices (B, C, D) do not represent common complications of untreated DVT and are therefore incorrect.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim works by stimulating the production of white blood cells. Therefore, monitoring the white blood cell (WBC) count is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B, serum potassium, is not directly affected by filgrastim therapy. Choice C, hemoglobin level, is important but not the primary indicator of filgrastim's effectiveness. Choice D, serum creatinine, is unrelated to the action of filgrastim and would not reflect its effectiveness.

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