Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime.
• D. Take the medication with an antacid.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take the medication on an empty stomach.' Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to ensure optimal absorption. Food, especially high-fiber foods, can interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine. Taking it with an antacid or at bedtime may also affect its absorption. Instructing the client to take the medication on an empty stomach will help maintain consistent blood levels of levothyroxine. Choice B is incorrect as taking levothyroxine with food can reduce its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because taking levothyroxine at bedtime may lead to inconsistent blood levels due to food intake during the day. Choice D is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine.

2. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is being discharged with a prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce?

• A. Store the tablets in a cool, dry place away from light.
• B. Take a tablet every 5 minutes if chest pain occurs.
• C. Place the tablets under the tongue for sublingual absorption.
• D. Take the tablets without water for faster effect.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Nitroglycerin tablets are light and moisture-sensitive, so they should be stored in a cool, dry place away from light to maintain their effectiveness. Option B advises taking a tablet every 5 minutes, which may lead to overdose as this frequency is too high. Option C emphasizes the correct administration route for sublingual tablets. Option D is incorrect as water is not needed for the tablets to take effect.

3. A client with coronary artery disease is prescribed a low-cholesterol diet. The nurse should reinforce which dietary selection made by the client?

• A. Eggs and bacon
• B. Oatmeal with fresh fruit
• C. Cream of chicken soup
• D. Grilled cheese sandwich

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oatmeal with fresh fruit is a suitable choice for a client with coronary artery disease prescribed a low-cholesterol diet. This option is high in fiber and nutrients, making it a heart-healthy selection. Oatmeal and fresh fruits are low in cholesterol and saturated fats, which helps in managing coronary artery disease. Choices A, C, and D are higher in cholesterol and saturated fats, which can be detrimental for individuals with this condition.

4. A client with schizophrenia taking clozapine is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Fever
• C. Weight gain
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider is B: Fever. Fever can be an indication of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition associated with clozapine. Agranulocytosis is characterized by a significant decrease in white blood cells, making the client susceptible to severe infections. Prompt reporting of fever is crucial to prevent serious complications. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A), weight gain (Choice C), and dry mouth (Choice D) are important to monitor but are not as immediately concerning as fever, which could indicate a severe adverse reaction requiring urgent medical attention.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

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