Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime.
• D. Take the medication with an antacid.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take the medication on an empty stomach.' Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to ensure optimal absorption. Food, especially high-fiber foods, can interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine. Taking it with an antacid or at bedtime may also affect its absorption. Instructing the client to take the medication on an empty stomach will help maintain consistent blood levels of levothyroxine. Choice B is incorrect as taking levothyroxine with food can reduce its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because taking levothyroxine at bedtime may lead to inconsistent blood levels due to food intake during the day. Choice D is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine.

2. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Monitor your heart rate daily.
• C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid consuming dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their heart rate daily when taking atenolol. Atenolol can lead to bradycardia, a slow heart rate. By monitoring heart rate daily, the client can promptly identify any significant changes and seek medical attention if necessary. This proactive approach enables early detection of potential adverse effects of atenolol, contributing to the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking atenolol at bedtime, increasing potassium-rich foods intake, or avoiding dairy products are not specific instructions related to the potential side effects of atenolol.

3. The nurse is planning measures to decrease the incidence of chest pain for a client with angina pectoris. What intervention should the nurse do to effectively accomplish this goal?

• A. Provide a quiet and low-stimulus environment.
• B. Encourage the family to visit very frequently.
• C. Encourage the client to call friends and relatives each day.
• D. Recommend that the client watch TV as a constant diversion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide a quiet and low-stimulus environment. A calm and quiet environment can help reduce stress, which is beneficial in preventing the occurrence of chest pain in clients with angina. Choice B is incorrect because excessive or frequent visitations may lead to increased stress and agitation for the client. Choice C is incorrect as it may not always contribute to a calm environment and could potentially increase the client's stress levels. Choice D is inappropriate as watching TV constantly may not promote a quiet and low-stimulus environment, which is essential in managing angina pectoris.

4. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Frequent urination
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Bleeding gums

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bleeding gums are a sign of excessive anticoagulation with warfarin, indicating a potential risk of bleeding complications. It is crucial to report this finding promptly to the provider for further assessment and adjustment of the medication regimen to prevent serious bleeding events. Weight gain, frequent urination, and hypokalemia are not typically associated with warfarin use and are not immediate concerns that require urgent reporting to the provider.

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