ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level.
- B. A client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr.
- C. A client who has 100 mL fluid remaining in his IV bag.
- D. A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client with low blood glucose needs immediate assessment to ensure that the orange juice has corrected the hypoglycemia. Monitoring the effectiveness of the intervention for low blood glucose is the priority. The other options, such as a client scheduled for a procedure in 1 hour, a client with fluid remaining in the IV bag, and a client who received pain medication 30 minutes ago, do not require immediate assessment like the client with low blood glucose.
2. A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse apply sterile gloves. Which of the following actions by the newly licensed nurse demonstrates sterile technique?
- A. Putting a glove on the dominant hand first
- B. Removing gloves and putting on a sterile gown first
- C. Putting sterile gloves last
- D. Applying gloves without touching outer surfaces
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Putting the glove on the dominant hand first is a key step in maintaining sterile technique as it reduces the risk of contamination. By covering the dominant hand first, the nurse minimizes the risk of contaminating the other hand during the glove application process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B introduces the concept of a sterile gown, which is not relevant to the question about applying sterile gloves. Choice C is incorrect as putting sterile gloves last does not follow the correct sequence of steps in maintaining sterility. Choice D, while important, is not as critical as covering the dominant hand first when applying sterile gloves.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube post-surgery. What is the most important assessment?
- A. Ensure the chest tube is clamped periodically
- B. Check for air leaks and ensure proper chest tube function
- C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours
- D. Ensure the client is positioned in a high Fowler's position
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check for air leaks and ensure proper chest tube function.' This is the most important assessment for a client with a chest tube post-surgery because it ensures that the chest tube is functioning properly. Checking for air leaks helps prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Choice A is incorrect because clamping the chest tube periodically can lead to serious complications and should not be done unless specifically ordered by a healthcare provider. Choice C is important for promoting lung expansion but is not the most critical assessment related to the chest tube. Choice D is also important for respiratory function but is not the priority when assessing a chest tube post-surgery.
4. What is an early sign that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Irritability
- C. Hypotension
- D. Decreased oxygen saturation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy. When secretions accumulate in the airway, it can lead to discomfort and irritability in the client. Bradycardia, hypotension, and decreased oxygen saturation are usually later signs of inadequate airway clearance and oxygenation. Bradycardia may indicate severe hypoxia, while hypotension and decreased oxygen saturation are consequences of prolonged airway obstruction.
5. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
- B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
- C. Encourage protein-rich foods to improve nutrition
- D. Increase calcium-rich foods in the diet
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus and potassium intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. In renal insufficiency, the kidneys struggle to excrete these minerals, leading to their buildup in the blood, which can be harmful. Limiting phosphorus and potassium intake helps prevent further kidney damage and manage the progression of chronic kidney disease. Encouraging protein-rich foods (Choice C) may be counterproductive as excessive protein intake can burden the kidneys. Increasing potassium-rich foods (Choice A) is incorrect as high potassium levels can be detrimental in kidney disease. Increasing calcium-rich foods (Choice D) is not typically a focus in dietary teaching for chronic kidney disease unless there is a specific deficiency or need, as excessive calcium intake can also be harmful to kidney function.
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