a nurse has just received change of shift report for four clients which of the following clients should the nurse assess first
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client with low blood glucose needs immediate assessment to ensure that the orange juice has corrected the hypoglycemia. Monitoring the effectiveness of the intervention for low blood glucose is the priority. The other options, such as a client scheduled for a procedure in 1 hour, a client with fluid remaining in the IV bag, and a client who received pain medication 30 minutes ago, do not require immediate assessment like the client with low blood glucose.

2. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing fatigue. Which intervention should the nurse implement to manage the client's fatigue?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention to manage fatigue in a client receiving chemotherapy is to encourage the client to take short naps during the day. Fatigue is a common side effect of chemotherapy, and allowing the client to rest can help combat this symptom. Instructing the client to remain on bedrest (Choice B) is not recommended as it may lead to deconditioning and worsen fatigue. Providing a high-calorie diet (Choice C) may be beneficial for overall nutrition but does not directly address fatigue. Encouraging the client to increase activity levels (Choice D) may exacerbate fatigue instead of alleviating it.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following goals should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An HbA1c level less than 7% indicates good long-term glucose control for clients with diabetes. This goal reflects optimal glycemic control and reduces the risk of long-term complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent appropriate goals for managing type 1 diabetes in an adolescent. An HbA1c level greater than 8% (choice A) signifies poor glucose control, while a blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime (choice B) and a blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast (choice C) are not within the target ranges for safe and effective diabetes management.

4. What is the primary intervention for sepsis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary intervention for sepsis involves a multifaceted approach, including administering IV antibiotics to address the underlying infection and administering fluids to stabilize the patient's hemodynamic status. Monitoring blood pressure is important in the management of sepsis, but it is not the sole primary intervention. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above' as it encompasses the comprehensive approach required for effective sepsis management.

5. What is the most appropriate next step when a client with an NG tube attached to low suctioning becomes nauseated, and the nurse observes a decrease in the flow of gastric secretions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to irrigate the NG tube with sterile water. When a client with an NG tube attached to low suctioning becomes nauseated and there is a decrease in the flow of gastric secretions, it indicates a possible blockage in the tube. Irrigating the tube with sterile water can help clear the blockage, allowing for proper suctioning and relieving the client's nausea. Increasing the suction pressure (Choice A) can further worsen the issue by potentially causing harm to the client. Turning the client on their side (Choice C) may not address the underlying problem of tube blockage. Replacing the NG tube with a new one (Choice D) should only be considered if other interventions, like irrigation, fail to clear the blockage.

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