Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
• C. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Chloride 100 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

2. How should fluid balance be assessed in a patient with heart failure?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Monitor input and output
• C. Check for edema
• D. Monitor blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with heart failure, monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method for assessing fluid balance. Weight gain can indicate fluid retention, a common issue in heart failure patients. Monitoring input and output (B) is essential but may not always accurately reflect fluid balance. Checking for edema (C) is important as it can indicate fluid accumulation, but daily weight monitoring is more precise. Monitoring blood pressure (D) is important in heart failure management but does not directly assess fluid balance.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following hip replacement surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 88/min
• B. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing
• C. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
• D. Urine output of 40 mL/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urine output of 40 mL/hr. A low urine output may indicate kidney complications, such as acute kidney injury, which is a critical finding postoperatively. The nurse should report this immediately to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client who is 1 day postoperative following hip replacement surgery and do not indicate immediate concerns that require reporting to the provider.

4. What is the appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. Administer anticoagulants
• B. Encourage ambulation
• C. Apply compression stockings
• D. Monitor oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer anticoagulants. Anticoagulants help prevent further clot formation in patients with suspected DVT. Encouraging ambulation can be beneficial in preventing DVT but is not the immediate intervention for a suspected case. Compression stockings are more for DVT prevention rather than treatment. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important in assessing respiratory function but is not the primary intervention for suspected DVT.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Massage the affected extremity to promote circulation.
• B. Elevate the affected extremity.
• C. Apply cold packs to the affected extremity.
• D. Perform range-of-motion exercises on the affected extremity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with DVT is to apply cold packs to the affected extremity. Cold packs can help reduce swelling and pain by constricting blood vessels. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge a clot and worsen the condition. Elevating the affected extremity helps with blood flow but is not the priority intervention for DVT. Performing range-of-motion exercises on the affected extremity can also dislodge a clot and is contraindicated.

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