a nurse is caring for a client who has a history of heart failure and is receiving furosemide which of the following laboratory values should the nurs
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam

1. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Polyuria is the correct answer. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the inability to concentrate urine, leading to excessive urination (polyuria) and thirst. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. While dehydration from the excessive urination can lead to hypotension rather than hypertension, and weight loss can occur due to fluid loss, the most specific and significant finding expected in diabetes insipidus is polyuria.

3. What is the primary action when caring for a patient with a stage 3 pressure ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This type of dressing helps maintain a moist environment that is conducive to healing in stage 3 pressure ulcers. Providing wound debridement (choice B) is more suitable for higher stages of pressure ulcers where there is necrotic tissue. Changing the dressing daily (choice C) may be necessary but is not the primary action for a stage 3 pressure ulcer. Applying moist gauze (choice D) is not the recommended approach as it does not provide the same benefits as a hydrocolloid dressing.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to parents of a newborn about genetic screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because avoiding public announcements about the baby's birth is crucial to reduce the risk of newborn abduction. Public announcements can attract unwanted attention and potentially jeopardize the safety of the newborn. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because the baby's identification band should be kept on at all times for security purposes. Choice B is incorrect because leaving the baby unattended in the room can pose risks. Choice C is incorrect because identification bands are usually applied immediately after birth, not after the first bath.

5. A client with heart failure is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: I will reduce my intake of processed meats.' This choice indicates an understanding of the teaching because processed meats are high in sodium, which can worsen heart failure due to fluid retention. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the issue of reducing sodium intake, which is crucial for clients with heart failure. Increasing canned vegetable intake (A) may not always be advisable due to potential high sodium content in canned products. Limiting sodium intake to 2 grams daily (B) is a good practice, but it's more specific to sodium restriction rather than addressing the source of sodium like processed meats. Increasing whole grains (C) is generally beneficial but does not directly relate to reducing sodium intake in heart failure clients.

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