a nurse is caring for a client who has a history of heart failure and is receiving furosemide which of the following laboratory values should the nurs
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam

1. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a prescription for digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A weight gain of 1.5 kg (3.3 lb) in 24 hours can indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure in clients taking digoxin. This rapid weight gain could be due to fluid accumulation, a common sign of heart failure exacerbation. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and not directly indicative of worsening heart failure in this context, making them less urgent to report compared to the significant weight gain.

3. A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A client with low blood glucose levels needs immediate assessment to ensure stabilization. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening situations that require urgent assessment. Option B can be attended to after addressing the client with low blood glucose levels. Option C can be managed based on the infusion rate and the client's condition. Option D, although important, can be assessed after ensuring the client with low blood glucose levels is stable.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week can indicate worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention, which can lead to serious complications. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further assessment and intervention. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is high but may not be an immediate concern for a client with preeclampsia at 30 weeks. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities is common in pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, and may not be a significant finding in isolation. A mild headache can be a common symptom in pregnancy and may not be indicative of worsening preeclampsia unless accompanied by other concerning signs.

5. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with confusion post-surgery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with confusion post-surgery because it helps alleviate confusion caused by potential hypoxia. In a post-surgical setting, confusion can be a sign of decreased oxygen levels in the blood due to various reasons such as respiratory depression, decreased lung function, or other complications. Administering oxygen can quickly address hypoxia, improving oxygenation to the brain and reducing confusion. Repositioning the patient, administering IV fluids, or performing a neurological assessment are not the primary interventions for confusion related to hypoxia post-surgery.

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