ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. A client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will check my blood glucose levels only when I feel sick.
- B. I will inject insulin in the same spot each time.
- C. I will rotate injection sites within the same anatomical region.
- D. I will inject insulin only if my blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with type 1 diabetes should rotate injection sites within the same anatomical region to prevent lipodystrophy. Choice A is incorrect because blood glucose levels should be checked regularly, not only when feeling sick. Choice B is incorrect as injecting insulin in the same spot each time can lead to lipodystrophy. Choice D is incorrect as insulin injections are usually required based on meal schedules and blood glucose levels, not just when levels are above 200 mg/dL.
2. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
- C. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Chloride 100 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.
3. A patient is diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Massage the affected extremity every 2 hours.
- B. Encourage the patient to ambulate as soon as possible.
- C. Apply warm compresses to the affected extremity.
- D. Elevate the affected extremity.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevating the affected extremity is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return, thereby preventing further complications such as pulmonary embolism. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge a clot and lead to serious consequences. While ambulation is important, in DVT, early ambulation without elevation can potentially dislodge the clot. Warm compresses can increase blood flow to the area and worsen the condition by promoting clot dislodgement.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Hemoglobin
- C. aPTT
- D. INR
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose as needed. While Prothrombin time (PT) and activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) are also related to coagulation studies, monitoring INR specifically helps in managing warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin, on the other hand, is not typically monitored in relation to warfarin therapy.
5. What is the initial action a healthcare provider should take for a patient with chest pain?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer nitroglycerin
- C. Administer morphine
- D. Prepare for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial action for a patient with chest pain is to administer oxygen. Chest pain can be caused by insufficient oxygenation, and providing oxygen helps alleviate the pain by increasing oxygen levels in the blood. Administering nitroglycerin or morphine may be appropriate based on the underlying cause of the chest pain, but oxygen should be given first to ensure the patient's oxygen supply is adequate. Surgery is not typically the initial intervention for chest pain.
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