ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A client with a history of depression is experiencing a situational crisis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Confirm the client's perception of the event.
- B. Notify the client's support system.
- C. Help the client identify personal strengths.
- D. Teach the client relaxation techniques.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to confirm the client's perception of the event. In crisis intervention, understanding the client's perspective is crucial as it helps the nurse assess the situation accurately and provide tailored support. This step can also help build rapport and trust with the client. Option B, notifying the client's support system, may be important but should come after assessing the client's perception. Option C, helping the client identify personal strengths, and option D, teaching relaxation techniques, are valuable interventions but should follow the initial step of confirming the client's perception.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about dietary modifications. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. I will limit my protein intake to prevent further kidney damage.
- C. I will avoid consuming foods high in phosphorus.
- D. I will increase my intake of dairy products to support kidney function.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting protein intake is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease as it helps prevent further kidney damage. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods (choice A) is not recommended for clients with kidney disease as high potassium levels can be harmful. Avoiding foods high in phosphorus (choice C) is important, but limiting protein intake is a higher priority. Increasing dairy product intake (choice D) is not ideal for clients with kidney disease as they may need to monitor their phosphorus intake from such foods.
3. A client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis should be placed in which type of room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens?
- A. Administer isoniazid by mouth daily.
- B. Place the client in droplet isolation.
- C. Wear a surgical mask when transporting the client.
- D. Place the client in a negative pressure room.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients diagnosed with tuberculosis should be placed in a negative pressure room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option A is incorrect because administering isoniazid is a treatment for tuberculosis, not a preventive measure related to infection control. Option B is incorrect as droplet isolation is used for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Option C is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask is not sufficient to prevent the spread of tuberculosis in healthcare settings; placing the client in a negative pressure room is the most effective measure.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. The client's platelet count is 25,000/mm3. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer aspirin for discomfort
- B. Check the client's temperature every 4 hr
- C. Monitor the client's urine output
- D. Check for stool in the client's colostomy bag every 2 hr
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with a low platelet count are at risk of bleeding and infection. Monitoring the client's temperature every 4 hours is crucial to detect early signs of infection, as they may not be able to mount a typical immune response due to their compromised platelet count. Administering aspirin (choice A) is contraindicated in clients with low platelet counts as it can further increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and checking for stool in a colostomy bag (choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority in a client with low platelet count.
5. A nurse is preparing to teach a client about the use of a peak flow meter. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and blow out as quickly as you can.
- B. Exhale slowly into the mouthpiece over 5 seconds.
- C. Take a slow deep breath before blowing into the mouthpiece.
- D. Blow into the mouthpiece at a steady rate for 3 seconds.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for using a peak flow meter is to place the mouthpiece in your mouth and blow out as quickly as you can. This action helps measure the peak expiratory flow of the client. Choice B is incorrect because exhaling slowly does not provide an accurate peak flow reading. Choice C is incorrect as taking a slow deep breath before blowing interferes with obtaining an accurate measurement. Choice D is incorrect as blowing at a steady rate for 3 seconds may not reflect the peak expiratory flow accurately.
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