ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A client with a history of depression is experiencing a situational crisis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Confirm the client's perception of the event.
- B. Notify the client's support system.
- C. Help the client identify personal strengths.
- D. Teach the client relaxation techniques.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to confirm the client's perception of the event. In crisis intervention, understanding the client's perspective is crucial as it helps the nurse assess the situation accurately and provide tailored support. This step can also help build rapport and trust with the client. Option B, notifying the client's support system, may be important but should come after assessing the client's perception. Option C, helping the client identify personal strengths, and option D, teaching relaxation techniques, are valuable interventions but should follow the initial step of confirming the client's perception.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a tracheostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when providing tracheostomy care?
- A. Use sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care.
- B. Replace the tracheostomy ties every 24 hours.
- C. Use a sterile brush to clean the inner cannula.
- D. Change the tracheostomy dressing once a week.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to use a sterile brush to clean the inner cannula. This action is crucial to prevent infection during tracheostomy care. Choice A is incorrect as clean technique is not adequate for tracheostomy care, sterile technique is required. Choice B is incorrect as tracheostomy ties should be replaced when soiled, not routinely every 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as tracheostomy dressings should be changed more frequently to maintain cleanliness and prevent infection.
3. A nurse is planning to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the following should the nurse do to prevent an adverse transfusion reaction?
- A. Verify the client's blood type with the provider's prescription
- B. Ensure the client's consent for the transfusion is on file
- C. Administer a diuretic prior to starting the transfusion
- D. Check the client's temperature prior to the transfusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type with the provider's prescription. This is crucial to prevent an adverse transfusion reaction due to incompatibility. Ensuring the blood type matches before starting the transfusion is a standard safety practice. Option B, ensuring client consent, is important but not directly related to preventing a transfusion reaction. Option C, administering a diuretic, is unnecessary and can be harmful in this context. Option D, checking the client's temperature, is important for general assessment but not specifically focused on preventing a transfusion reaction.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor, and the FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What should the nurse suspect?
- A. Maternal fever.
- B. Fetal anemia.
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
- D. Chorioamnionitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, which is indicated by a baseline FHR of 100/min. In this scenario, the sustained low baseline FHR suggests a possible link to maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) usually causes fetal tachycardia as a compensatory mechanism to deliver more oxygen to tissues. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is associated with maternal fever and an elevated fetal heart rate, not a sustained low baseline FHR.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Ammonia 75 mcg/dL
- B. Sodium 142 mEq/L
- C. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- D. Bilirubin 2.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated bilirubin level in clients with cirrhosis indicates worsening liver function and potential complications. It is crucial to report this finding promptly as it may require immediate medical intervention. Elevated ammonia levels (choice A) are also concerning in cirrhosis, indicating hepatic encephalopathy, but bilirubin levels are more specific to liver function in this context. Choices B and C are within normal ranges and are not typically of immediate concern in cirrhosis.
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