ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. Which of the following lab values indicates a patient on warfarin is at a therapeutic level?
- A. INR of 1.1
- B. PT of 12 seconds
- C. INR of 2.5
- D. Platelet count of 150,000
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An INR of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for a patient on warfarin. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most accurate way to monitor and adjust warfarin doses. An INR of 1.1 (Choice A) is below the therapeutic range, indicating a need for an increased dose. PT (Prothrombin Time) of 12 seconds (Choice B) is not specific for warfarin therapy monitoring. Platelet count (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Tremors
- B. Increased thirst
- C. Weight gain
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Tremors can indicate lithium toxicity, which should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Tremors are a significant sign of lithium toxicity and can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Increased thirst, weight gain, and diarrhea are common side effects of lithium but are not typically indicative of toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting tremors as it requires immediate attention.
3. A nurse is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which prescription should the nurse identify as complete?
- A. Furosemide 20 mg BID
- B. Aspirin 1 tablet daily
- C. Nitroglycerin transdermal patch
- D. Metoprolol 5 mg IV now
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A complete prescription should include the medication name (Furosemide), dosage (20 mg), and administration schedule (BID - twice daily). Choice B is missing the dosage of Aspirin, choice C lacks the dosage information for Nitroglycerin, and choice D does not specify the administration schedule for Metoprolol.
4. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops a fever. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Stop the transfusion immediately.
- B. Administer an antihistamine as prescribed.
- C. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
- D. Increase the transfusion rate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client receiving a blood transfusion develops a fever, the priority action for the nurse is to stop the transfusion immediately. A fever during a blood transfusion may indicate a transfusion reaction, and stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Administering an antihistamine (choice B) or a diuretic (choice C) without assessing and addressing the potential transfusion reaction can be harmful. Increasing the transfusion rate (choice D) is contraindicated as it can exacerbate any adverse reactions the client is experiencing.
5. A client is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to lie flat in bed.
- B. Apply heat to the incision site.
- C. Use an abduction pillow between the client's legs.
- D. Place a trochanter roll under the client's knees.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Using an abduction pillow between the client's legs is essential in maintaining proper alignment and preventing dislocation of the hip joint following a hip arthroplasty. Encouraging the client to lie flat in bed (Choice A) is not recommended as early mobilization is crucial for preventing complications. Applying heat to the incision site (Choice B) is not typically done immediately postoperatively. Placing a trochanter roll under the client's knees (Choice D) is not as beneficial as using an abduction pillow to maintain proper positioning.
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