ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be elevated?
- A. Serum albumin.
- B. Ammonia.
- C. Bilirubin.
- D. Prothrombin time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ammonia. In clients with cirrhosis, impaired liver function can lead to elevated levels of ammonia in the blood. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by altered mental status. Serum albumin (Choice A) is typically decreased in cirrhosis due to the liver's reduced synthetic function. Bilirubin (Choice C) levels can be elevated in liver disease but may not always be the most specific marker for cirrhosis. Prothrombin time (Choice D) is prolonged in cirrhosis due to impaired liver synthesis of clotting factors.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who speaks a language different from the nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request an interpreter of a different sex from the client
- B. Request a family member or friend to interpret information for the client
- C. Direct attention toward the interpreter when speaking to the client
- D. Review the facility policy about the use of an interpreter
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client who speaks a different language is to review the facility policy about the use of an interpreter. This ensures compliance with best practices for communication when using interpreters, maintaining accuracy and confidentiality. Requesting an interpreter of a different sex from the client (Choice A) is not relevant to effective communication. Asking a family member or friend to interpret (Choice B) can lead to misinterpretation or breach of confidentiality. Directing attention toward the interpreter (Choice C) is not as crucial as understanding the facility's policy on interpreter use.
3. A client receiving intermittent enteral feedings is being cared for by a nurse. Which action should the nurse take to reduce the risk of aspiration?
- A. Administer the feeding over 60 minutes.
- B. Position the client in a supine position during feedings.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
- D. Flush the feeding tube with 60 mL of water before each feeding.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action to reduce the risk of aspiration during enteral feedings is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps prevent the reflux of feeding into the lungs. Administering the feeding over 60 minutes (Choice A) does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Positioning the client in a supine position (Choice B) increases the risk of aspiration as it promotes reflux. Flushing the feeding tube with water (Choice D) is important for tube patency but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of alcohol use disorder and is experiencing withdrawal. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer naloxone
- B. Administer diazepam
- C. Encourage oral fluid intake
- D. Administer magnesium sulfate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with alcohol use disorder experiencing withdrawal is to administer diazepam. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage withdrawal symptoms in these clients by reducing anxiety, tremors, and the risk of seizures. Administering naloxone (Choice A) is used for opioid overdose, not alcohol withdrawal. Encouraging oral fluid intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial but not a specific intervention for alcohol withdrawal. Administering magnesium sulfate (Choice D) is not indicated for alcohol withdrawal but may be used for other conditions like preeclampsia or eclampsia.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. This can result in adverse effects such as muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other complications. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not an adverse effect of furosemide but rather an elevated potassium level. Hyperglycemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice D) are not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels and addressing hypokalemia is crucial in clients taking furosemide.
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