a nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be elevated
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ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be elevated?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ammonia. In clients with cirrhosis, impaired liver function can lead to elevated levels of ammonia in the blood. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by altered mental status. Serum albumin (Choice A) is typically decreased in cirrhosis due to the liver's reduced synthetic function. Bilirubin (Choice C) levels can be elevated in liver disease but may not always be the most specific marker for cirrhosis. Prothrombin time (Choice D) is prolonged in cirrhosis due to impaired liver synthesis of clotting factors.

2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has cholecystitis. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Whole milk. Clients with cholecystitis should avoid high-fat foods, and whole milk contains high levels of fat. Bananas, oatmeal, and brown rice are generally considered safe for clients with cholecystitis as they are low in fat and easily digestible. Bananas are a good source of potassium, oatmeal is high in fiber, and brown rice provides complex carbohydrates. Therefore, the nurse should advise the client to avoid whole milk but can recommend the other choices as part of a balanced diet for cholecystitis.

3. What is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient with kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. This method is the most accurate way to assess fluid balance in patients with kidney disease. Daily weight monitoring can detect even small changes in fluid balance, such as fluid retention or loss, which may not be evident through other methods. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is also important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance as it doesn't consider factors like insensible losses. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid retention but may not always be present or may be difficult to assess accurately. Checking urine output (choice D) is important but may not reflect the overall fluid balance status of the patient.

4. A patient is scheduled to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Priming the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride is crucial before administering packed RBCs as it prevents hemolysis and ensures the safe transfusion of blood. Using a smaller 20- to 22-gauge IV catheter is recommended for packed RBCs to prevent hemolysis due to the small tubing size and faster flow rate. Obtaining filterless IV tubing is incorrect as blood products should be administered through a specialized filter to prevent potential clots or contaminants from reaching the patient. Placing blood in the warmer for an hour is unnecessary and could lead to overheating, potentially causing harm to the patient.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a glucose tolerance test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients should avoid consuming any food or drink for 8 hours before the glucose tolerance test to ensure accurate results. Choice A is the correct instruction for the client preparing for a glucose tolerance test. Drinking water, taking an antacid, or consuming milk before the test can interfere with the accuracy of the results. Water or any other substance might affect the concentration of glucose in the blood, leading to inaccurate test results. Antacids and milk can also interfere with the test outcome. Therefore, the client should follow the instruction to fast for 8 hours before the test.

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