a nurse is caring for a 5 month old infant who has manifestations of severe dehydration and a prescription for parenteral fluid therapy the guardian a a nurse is caring for a 5 month old infant who has manifestations of severe dehydration and a prescription for parenteral fluid therapy the guardian a
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A nurse is caring for a 5-month-old infant who has manifestations of severe dehydration and a prescription for parenteral fluid therapy. The guardian asks, 'What are the indications that my baby needs an IV?' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A lack of tear production is a sign of severe dehydration in infants, indicating the need for IV therapy. Option B, bulging fontanels, is a sign of increased intracranial pressure, not dehydration. Option C, breathing slower than normal, and Option D, decreasing heart rate, are not specific signs of severe dehydration that would indicate the need for IV therapy in this case.

2. Achieving Magnet Hospital designation offers hospitals the following advantages: (Select one that does not apply.)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Achieving Magnet Hospital designation provides advantages such as greater client satisfaction, improved nursing recruitment, and nurses who are independent decision makers. However, the statement about 'Greater client workload' is not a typical advantage associated with Magnet recognition. Organizations that achieve Magnet recognition focus on improving nursing work environments, empowering nurses, and enhancing patient care quality, rather than increasing client workload. Therefore, C is the correct choice. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they align with the benefits of achieving Magnet Hospital designation as they lead to increased satisfaction, better recruitment, and more empowered nurses.

3. How can a nurse determine the efficacy of a child's mebendazole treatment for roundworm after 3 weeks?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stool for ova and parasites. To assess the efficacy of treatment for roundworm, the nurse would examine the stool for ova (eggs) and parasites. This test helps determine if the infection has been cleared. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because liver function tests are not commonly used to monitor roundworm treatment efficacy, and colonoscopy/sigmoidoscopy as well as rectal swab for culture are not routine diagnostic tests for assessing the effectiveness of mebendazole treatment for roundworm.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client experiences permanent extrapyramidal effects caused by a previous medication. The healthcare professional should recognize that the medication affected which of the following systems in the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Central nervous. Extrapyramidal effects are movement disorders caused by certain medications affecting the central nervous system. These effects can include symptoms like tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Medications like typical antipsychotics induce extrapyramidal effects by interfering with dopamine transmission in the central nervous system. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as extrapyramidal effects are specifically related to the central nervous system and not the cardiovascular, immune, or gastrointestinal systems.

5. A client is starting therapy with bicalutamide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is gynecomastia (Choice C). Bicalutamide is associated with gynecomastia due to its antiandrogenic properties. Gynecomastia, the development of breast tissue in males, is an important adverse effect to monitor when taking bicalutamide. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Muscle pain and flushing are not commonly associated with bicalutamide use. Hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of bicalutamide therapy.

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