a nurse is caring for a client who wears glasses which of the following actions should the nurse take
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ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A client who wears glasses is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to store the glasses in a labeled case. This ensures the safety of the glasses and helps in their proper identification when needed. Cleaning the glasses with hot water (Choice B) can damage them, and using a paper towel (Choice C) can scratch the lenses. Storing the glasses on the bedside table (Choice D) can lead to misplacement or damage. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to store the glasses in a labeled case.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is experiencing dyspnea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve breathing by expanding the lungs and aiding in better oxygenation. Encouraging the client to take deep breaths may not be effective in managing dyspnea in COPD as it can lead to fatigue. Administering a bronchodilator may be necessary but placing the client in a high-Fowler's position should be the priority. Administering oxygen at 6 L/min via face mask may also be needed, but positioning is the initial intervention to optimize respiratory function.

3. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for a clot to form, and a therapeutic range for heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 60-80 seconds. An INR of 1.5 is not related to heparin therapy, as it is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count and potassium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is low and should be reported to the provider. Furosemide can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can result in cardiac dysrhythmias, which is a serious concern in clients with heart failure. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L, heart rate of 82/min, and oxygen saturation of 95% are all acceptable findings.

5. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with confusion post-surgery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with confusion post-surgery because it helps alleviate confusion caused by potential hypoxia. In a post-surgical setting, confusion can be a sign of decreased oxygen levels in the blood due to various reasons such as respiratory depression, decreased lung function, or other complications. Administering oxygen can quickly address hypoxia, improving oxygenation to the brain and reducing confusion. Repositioning the patient, administering IV fluids, or performing a neurological assessment are not the primary interventions for confusion related to hypoxia post-surgery.

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