Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse discontinues the magnesium sulfate after the client displays toxicity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client supine.
• B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5% in water.
• C. Administer methylergonovine IM.
• D. Administer calcium gluconate IV.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, calcium gluconate is the antidote that should be administered promptly. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario. Administering dextrose 5% in water (Choice B) is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Methylergonovine IM (Choice C) is used for postpartum hemorrhage, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity.

2. What are the differences between viral and bacterial infections?

• A. Viral infections often cause fatigue and body aches
• B. Bacterial infections often cause high fever and localized pain
• C. Viral infections are treated with antibiotics
• D. Bacterial infections are usually self-limiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Viral infections often cause fatigue and body aches, while bacterial infections are more likely to cause high fever and localized pain. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the symptoms commonly associated with viral infections. Bacterial infections, on the other hand, typically present with fever and localized pain, as stated in choice B. Choice C is incorrect as viral infections do not respond to antibiotics, while choice D is inaccurate because bacterial infections may require antibiotic treatment and are not always self-limiting.

3. A nurse is collecting data from a postpartum client who had a vaginal birth 2 days ago. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority to report to the provider?

• A. Bright red bleeding
• B. Burning with urination
• C. Headache
• D. Heavy lochia flow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Burning with urination.' Burning with urination can indicate a urinary tract infection postpartum, which requires immediate attention to prevent complications. Bright red bleeding and heavy lochia flow are expected findings in the early postpartum period as the uterus continues to contract and expel lochia. A headache alone is not uncommon postpartum and is often attributed to hormonal changes, dehydration, or fatigue, and can be managed with adequate rest, hydration, and pain relief. Therefore, the priority here is to address the potential infection indicated by burning with urination.

4. A nurse is caring for a client post-op with a chest tube. What should the nurse check for regularly?

• A. Ensure the chest tube is periodically clamped
• B. Check for air leaks in the tubing
• C. Keep the client in a prone position for chest drainage
• D. Administer diuretics to prevent fluid buildup

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check for air leaks in the tubing. Air leaks can compromise the function of the chest tube, leading to inadequate drainage and potentially causing complications for the client. Clamping the chest tube periodically is incorrect as it could lead to a buildup of fluid or air in the pleural space. Keeping the client in a prone position is not necessary for chest drainage, as the positioning may vary depending on the specific situation. Administering diuretics may not be directly related to monitoring the chest tube for proper function and is not a routine intervention for chest tube management post-op.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
• B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

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