Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving heparin to treat deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. aPTT of 38 seconds
• B. Hemoglobin of 15 g/dL
• C. Platelet count of 80,000/mm3
• D. INR of 1.0

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A platelet count of 80,000/mm3 is below the normal range and should be reported to the provider due to the risk of bleeding. Heparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, leading to a decrease in platelet count and an increased risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 38 seconds, hemoglobin of 15 g/dL, and an INR of 1.0 are within normal ranges and not directly concerning in this scenario. Platelet count is crucial to monitor in clients receiving heparin therapy to ensure adequate clotting function and prevent bleeding complications.

2. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for metoprolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Do not discontinue this medication suddenly.
• B. Take this medication in the evening to decrease the risk of falls.
• C. Monitor your heart rate before taking this medication.
• D. Avoid grapefruit juice while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed metoprolol is to monitor their heart rate before taking the medication. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia (slow heart rate), so it is essential for clients to check their heart rate before each dose. Choice A is incorrect because abruptly stopping metoprolol can lead to adverse effects, so it should not be discontinued suddenly. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific recommendation to take metoprolol at night to reduce falls. Choice D is incorrect because grapefruit juice can interact with metoprolol, affecting its absorption, and should be avoided.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor, and the FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What should the nurse suspect?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, which is indicated by a baseline FHR of 100/min. In this scenario, the sustained low baseline FHR suggests a possible link to maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) usually causes fetal tachycardia as a compensatory mechanism to deliver more oxygen to tissues. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is associated with maternal fever and an elevated fetal heart rate, not a sustained low baseline FHR.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has experienced intimate partner violence. What is the nurse's priority?

• A. Develop a safety plan with the client.
• B. Refer the client to a community support group.
• C. Determine if the client has any injuries.
• D. Contact the client's family about the incident.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Develop a safety plan with the client.' When caring for a client who has experienced intimate partner violence, the nurse's priority is to ensure the client's safety. Developing a safety plan is essential to address the immediate safety concerns and provide support to the client. Referring the client to a community support group, as in option B, may be beneficial but is not the immediate priority. While determining if the client has any injuries, as in option C, is important for assessing physical well-being, the priority is to address safety concerns first. Contacting the client's family about the incident, as in option D, is not appropriate without the client's consent and may further endanger the client.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a laminectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Elevate the client's legs while in bed.
• B. Reposition the client every 2 hours.
• C. Maintain bed rest for the first 24 hours postoperatively.
• D. Ambulate the client on the first postoperative day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ambulating the client on the first postoperative day is crucial to prevent complications like deep vein thrombosis and aid in the recovery process. Elevating the legs while in bed can help with circulation but is not as effective in preventing complications related to immobility post-surgery. Repositioning every 2 hours is important for preventing pressure ulcers but does not directly address postoperative care. Maintaining bed rest for the first 24 hours postoperatively can increase the risk of complications associated with immobility, making early ambulation a more appropriate intervention.

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