ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving heparin to treat deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. aPTT of 38 seconds
- B. Hemoglobin of 15 g/dL
- C. Platelet count of 80,000/mm3
- D. INR of 1.0
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A platelet count of 80,000/mm3 is below the normal range and should be reported to the provider due to the risk of bleeding. Heparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, leading to a decrease in platelet count and an increased risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 38 seconds, hemoglobin of 15 g/dL, and an INR of 1.0 are within normal ranges and not directly concerning in this scenario. Platelet count is crucial to monitor in clients receiving heparin therapy to ensure adequate clotting function and prevent bleeding complications.
2. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?
- A. Potassium
- B. PT/INR
- C. Sodium
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.
3. A healthcare professional is receiving a change-of-shift report for an adult female client who is postoperative. Which client information should the healthcare professional report?
- A. Low-grade fever.
- B. Shortness of breath.
- C. Decreased urine output.
- D. High platelet count.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a postoperative client, a low-grade fever can be an early sign of infection, which is crucial to report to the healthcare team for timely intervention. Shortness of breath and decreased urine output are also important to monitor, but in the context of postoperative care, infection is a more immediate concern. A high platelet count is not typically a priority in the immediate postoperative period.
4. What is the appropriate action for a patient experiencing chest pain?
- A. Administer aspirin
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Check oxygen saturation
- D. Prepare for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for a patient experiencing chest pain is to administer aspirin. Aspirin helps reduce the risk of clot formation in patients with chest pain, as it has antiplatelet effects. Repositioning the patient may not address the underlying cause of the chest pain. Checking oxygen saturation is important but not the initial priority in this scenario. Surgery is not typically the first-line treatment for chest pain without further assessment and diagnostic procedures.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. You should avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- C. You should take this medication with meals to improve absorption.
- D. Take this medication before bed to prevent drowsiness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed metformin is to take the medication with meals to improve absorption and reduce gastrointestinal upset. Metformin is typically recommended to be taken with food to minimize side effects. Option A is incorrect as taking metformin on an empty stomach may increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is unrelated as metformin does not interact with potassium-rich foods. Option D is also incorrect as metformin does not cause drowsiness, so there is no need to take it before bed.
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