Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hr postpartum and has a third-degree perineal laceration. The client reports not having a bowel movement for 4 days. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository.
• B. Magnesium hydroxide 30 ml PO.
• C. Famotidine 20 mg PO.
• D. Loperamide 4 mg PO.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository. Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that promotes bowel movement, which is appropriate for a postpartum client experiencing constipation. Magnesium hydroxide (choice B) is an antacid and not indicated for constipation. Famotidine (choice C) is an H2 receptor antagonist used for reducing stomach acid production, not for constipation. Loperamide (choice D) is an antidiarrheal agent and would worsen constipation in this case.

2. A nurse is providing teaching about folic acid to a client who is primigravida. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should take folic acid to prevent neural tube defects in your baby.
• B. You should consume at least 400 micrograms of folic acid daily.
• C. You can increase your dietary intake of folic acid by consuming cereals and citrus fruits.
• D. You should expect improved energy levels when taking folic acid supplements.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Folic acid helps prevent neural tube defects, and dietary sources like cereals and citrus fruits are good options to increase folic acid intake. Choice A is incorrect because folic acid is primarily recommended to prevent neural tube defects, not to prevent infections. Choice B is incorrect because the recommended daily intake of folic acid for pregnant women is at least 400 micrograms, not 300. Choice D is incorrect because folic acid is not typically associated with improving energy levels.

3. A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?

• A. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial.
• B. History of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• C. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
• D. Receiving a feeding in a supine position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.

4. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor platelet count
• C. Monitor sodium levels
• D. Monitor calcium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.

5. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 80/min.
• B. Weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours.
• C. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
• D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours may indicate dehydration or fluid imbalance, which should be reported. This rapid weight loss could be a sign of excessive diuresis, potentially leading to hypovolemia or electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring weight changes is crucial in clients with heart failure receiving diuretics. The other findings are within normal ranges and expected in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure. A heart rate of 80/min, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr are generally acceptable in this scenario.

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